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BIOL 1P91 Final

What is photosynthesis?

process by which some organisms capture the energy from the sun (solar) and transform it into energy (chemical) that can be used by living things

What is a producer

an organism that makes its own energy-rich food components using the sun's energy. ex.) green plants

What are autotrophs

- organisms that make their own food
Phototroph: use solar energy (photosynthesis) to get energy

Chemotroph: use different chemical processes to get energy

What is a consumer:

- an organism that obtains its energy from consuming other organisms

What are heterotrophs

- organism that must take in food to meet their energy needs
- consume autotrophs, other heterotroph (carnivores), or both (omnivore)

Explain the cause of the dinosaur extinction

- a huge asteroid is thought to have hit Earth near Mexico which sent up so much dust that the sun was blocked for many years
No sun = no food = no dinos

Define the biosphere

- regions on the surface of the Earth and atmosphere where living organisms exist

What are the two stages of photosynthesis? Where do they occur?

1. Light reactions (in thylakoid membranes): light is absorbed by chlorophyll and converted to ATP and NADPH
2. Dark reactions(Calvin cycle) (in stoma): ATP and NADPH used to drive the synthesis of carbohydrates

Where does the majority of photosynthesis occur?

internally in the leaves, in the mesophyll

T/F, shorter wavelengths radiation carries more energy per unit time than longer wave length radiation.

TRUE

Which of the photosystems, PSI or PSII was discovered first and which one is used in the 1st step of photosynthesis?

PSI - discovered first
PSII - in 1st step of photosynthesis

What is the primary goal of PSI?

- to make NADPH

What 3 things are made after the light-dependent reactions?

Oxygen, NADPH, ATP

Why is there said to be a Z-scheme in the process of photosynthesis?

- a zigzag shape of energy curve
- photosynthesis involves increases and decreases in the energy of an electron as it moves from PSII through PSI to NADPH

- involves light exciting electrons

Explain the dark reactions briefly

- creating carbohydrates through the calvin cycle
- CO2 is incorporated

- requires massive input of energy

- product is glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) (made into glucose later)

- 3 phases: Carbon fixation, reduction and carbohydrate production, regeneration of RuBP

T/F, RuBisCo can be a carboxylase and an oxygenase

TRUE

What are C4 plants and give an example

- in warm dry climates C4 plants conserve water and prevent photorespiration
- evolved a mechanism to minimize photorespiration

ex.) Bamboo, corn

What are CAM plants?

Crassulacean acid metabolism
- separate processes using time

- open stomata at night

- CO2 enters and is converted to malate

- banks up on CO2 throughout the day to convert it at night

ex.) Cactus

Define inheritance

= the acquisition of traits by their transmission from parent to offspring
- used to have thought to occur through pangenesis (whole body contributes to offspring)

What is the idea of Blending Inheritance and is it false?

that hereditary traits blended together in offspring and continued to be passed down
- not true either!!

Who is Gregor Mendel? What did he study?

- priest
- studied physics and math

- studied pea plants

- "father of modern genetics"

What are three advantages of pea plants?

1. Genetic variation
2. Normally self-fertilizing

3. Ease of making crosses

What is P generation? What is F1 generation? What is F2 generation?

P gen: true-breeding parents
F1 gen: first-generation offspring of a P cross

F2 gen: F1 monohybrids fertilize to produce the F2 generation

Name 3 important ideas from Mendel

1. Traits may exist in two forms, dominant and recessive
2. An individual carries 2 genes for a character/trait, genes have different alleles

3. 2 alleles of a gene separate to give rise to haploid cells and gametes, so each sperm and egg receives only one allele

What is Mendel's Law of Segregation?

2 copies of a gene segregate from each other during gamete formation, so only one allele is given to each gamete

Distinguish between genotype and phenotype

Genotype: genetic composition of individual
Phenotype: characteristics (traits) of an organism that are the result of their genotype ex.) Tall phenotype vs. dwarf phenotype

What were Mendel's two hypotheses for assortment and which one did he actually see?

1. Linked assortment: genes segregate together
2. Independent assortment: genes are independent, so their alleles are randomly distributed into the gametes, ex.) 9:3:3:1


Mendel saw Independent assortment

What is Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment?

the alleles of different genes assort independently of each other during the process that gives rise to gametes

What are autosomes vs. sex chromosomes

Autosomes: pairs of chromosomes found in both sexes
Sex chromosomes: distinctive pair of chromosomes that differs between males and females

How many human chromosomes? How many pairs of autosomes? How many pairs of sex chromosomes?

- 46 chromosomes
- 22 pairs of autosomes

- 1 pair of sex chromosomes

Explain the difference between Wild-type allele and Mutant allele?

Wild-type allele: prevalent allele in a population
Mutant allele: alleles that have been altered by mutation (rare in natural populations)

What is incomplete dominance?

- heterozygote exhibits a phenotype that is distinct and intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes
- shows different phenotypes at 100%, 50% and 0% protein levels

- red, white, and pink

What is codominance?

- single individual expresses both alleles in a way that leads to BOTH traits in the phenotype

What is polygenic inheritance?

- determined by multiple genes!
- traits that show continuous variation over a range of phenotypes are called quantitative traits


ex.) grain pigmentation in wheat

T/F, calico cats are always female and why?

TRUE
- the gene for coat colour is on the X chromosome

- shows patches where the orange or black allele was inactivated

What is gene linkage? and a linkage group?

gene linkage = when different genes are close together on the same chromosome, they tend to be transmitted as a unit
linkage group = group of genes that usually stays together during meiosis (do NOT follow the law of independent assortment)

Explain noncombinants/parental and recombinants/nonparental types:

Noncombinants: offspring combination of traits has not changed from parental generations (no crossing over between genes)
Recombinants: offspring have a different combination of traits from parental generation (crossing over occurs)

How many cells does the average adult human body contain

10 to 50 trillion cells

What are the two processes of cell reproduction?

1. Mitosis
2. Meiosis

What is cytogenetics

The field of genetics involving microscopic examination of chromosomes

T/F, the biggest chromosomes are the smallest numbers, like chromosome 1 and 2

TRUE

What is a karyotype

- a photographic representation of chromosomes

Diploid vs. Haploid

Diploid: 2 chromosome sets (2N)
Haploid: 1 set of chromosomes (N)

T/F, the Y chromosome is much larger than the X chromosome

FALSE, chromosome X is much bigger than Y

Name the different parts of interphase and then the last part that is not in interphase

Interphase
G1: first gap

S: synthesis of DNA

G2: second gap


M: mitosis & cytokinesis

Differentiate between the terms Mitosis and Cytokinesis

Mitosis = division of one nuclei into two nuclei
Cytokinesis = division of one cell into two

How is cytokinesis different in animal cells compared to plant cells?

Animal cells: cleavage furrow constricts (like a drawstring) to separate cells into two

Plant cells: vesicles from Golgi apparatus form a cell plate, which then forms a cell wall between the 2 daughter cells

T/F, genes are located on the same place on the chromosomes for everybody

TRUE

What is CHIASMA

= the connection between chromosomes that have crossed over (visible during late prophase)

Who proposed the Chromosome Theory of Inheritance?

Boveri & Sutton

What is a locus

physical location of a gene on a chromosome

T/F, diploid multicellular stage = sporophyte and haploid multicellular stage = gametophyte

TRUE

What is genetic material

the "blueprint" for the construction of living organisms

What are the four criteria for genetic material? T.R.I.V

1. Information
2. Replication

3. Transmission

4. Variation

In the 1920s to 1940s, scientists expected _______ to be identified as the genetic material

PROTEIN

Who performed the experiment on Bacterial Transformation?

Griffith

what are the 2 strains of a bacterium (streptococcus pneumoniae)

1. Smooth (S): secretes a capsule, look smooth
= pathogenic: causes disease/infection and kils mice


1. Rough (R): does not secrete a capsule, look rough

= does not cause infection in mice

Which scientists performed a follow-up experiment to Griffith's experiment

Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty

What is transformation:

A process in bacteria where DNA is taken up from the environment and incorporated into the cell
- can be performed naturally and also be induced

What is a genome:

A complete complement of an organism's genetic material

Name the 3 components of nucleotides of DNA

1. Phosphate group
2. Pentose sugar = Deoxyribose

3. Nitrogenous bases

Purines: Adenine, Guanine

Pyrimidines: Cytosine, Thymine

Who proposed the double helix structure of DNA?

James Watson, Francis Crick, Maurice Wilkins

Who performed the experiment on X-ray Diffraction? (taking chemical substances and putting it on a slide)

Rosalind Franklin

Name the 3 proposed mechanisms for DNA replication

a) Semiconservative mechanism: 1 parental strand and one newly made daughter strand
b) Conservative mechanism: 2 new daughter strands

c) Dispersive mechanism: segments of new DNA are interspersed with the parental DNA

Which mechanism for DNA replication is accurate?

Semiconservative model

Which two scientists performed an experiment to differentiate betweent the mechanisms

Stahl & Meselson

In DNA replication, 2 _______ strands separate and serve as template for synthesis of new strands. New nucleotides are added according to _____-__________ rules
Result is 2 ________ helices, and each double helix has _____ parental strand and ______ newly made daughter strand.

In DNA replication, 2 PARENTAL strands separate and serve as template for synthesis of new strands. New nucleotides are added according to BASE-PAIRING rules
Result is 2 DOUBLE helices, and each double helix has ONE parental strand and ONE newly made daughter strand.

How is DNA replication different in bacteria vs. in eukaryotes?

Bacteria - single origin of replication (think circle)
Eukaryotes - multiple origins of replication

What protein is the "unzipper" or the protein that moves in opposite directions to separate the 2 DNA strands?

DNA helicase

What protein alleviates the super coils (created by the replication fork during unwinding)?

DNA topoisomerase

Which protein synthesizes DNA

DNA polymerase

T/F, DNA polymerase can only add a new nucleotide to the 3’-OH of an existing nucleotide

TRUE, has two consequences:
- Cannot begin DNA synthesis on a bare template strand

- DNA synthesis always proceeds in a 5’ to 3’ direction

What is DNA primer

- initiates DNA synthesis by making a short segment of DNA (called RNA primer)

T/F, the new daughter strand must be synthesized ANTIPARALLEL to its template

= true

DIfferentiate between Leading and Lagging strands

Leading strand:
- a single RNA primer is made

- synthesis of DNA is continuous from the primer, making one long molecule

- synthesis occurs in SAME direction as fork movement


Lagging strand:

- synthesis occurs in OPPOSITE direction to fork movement

- requires multiple RNA primers

- SHORT segments of DNA are synthesized

What is the name for the short segments of DNA that are eventually connected?

Okazaki fragments

what is the role of DNA ligase in DNA synthesis?

DNA ligase = connects the newly synthesized DNA to the other parts of DNA -> used to seal DNA fragments of lagging strand

T/F, the active site of DNA polymerase is unlikely to form bonds if pairs mismatched

TRUE

T/F, DNA polymerase has PROOFREADING activity

TRUE

Gene Expression?

process by which the information of a gene is made into a functional product

Mutation?

a heritable change in the genetic material - can alter gene sequence

What did Archibald Garrod study patients of?

Archibald Garrod studied patients with metabolic defects such as alkaptonuria (black skin, cartilage, urine)

Define Inborn Errors of Metabolism:

a group of rare genetic disorders that affect the body's ability to convert food into energy:

What did Beadle and Tatum study and discover

- studied common bread mold
- they had a ONE GENE ONE ENZYME theory

- discovered that enzymes are only one category of cellular proteins -> genes encode for other types

- some proteins are composed of two or more polypeptides

Who proposed the Central Dogma of Gene Expression?

Watson & Crick

Give some differences between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes

Prokaryotes:
- no nucleus

- smaller

- DNA in cytoplasm


Eukaryotes:

- has nucleus

- more complex

- bigger

- DNA in nucleus

What is a gene:

an organized unit of DNA sequences
- transcribed into RNA

- results in the formation of a functional product

What does tRNA and rRNA stand for

tRNA = transfer RNA
rRNA = ribosomal RNA

Define Promoter, Terminator, Transcribed region and Regulatory sequence

Promoter: section that brings in RNA polymerase to start the transcription - signals the beginning of transcription

Terminator: boots RNA polymerase off - signals the end of transcription


Regulatory sequence: site for binding of regulatory proteins

- can increase/decrease the rate of transcription


Transcribed region: this region contains the info that specifies an amino acid sequence

T/F, RNA doesn't contain T, it contains U(uracil) instead

TRUE

Name the three stages of transcription:

1. Initiation
2. Elongation/synthesis of the RNA transcript

3. Termination

Define template/noncoding strand and coding strand

Template/noncoding strand: the DNA strand used as a template for RNA synthesis

Coding strand: DNA strand NOT used for transcription

- Unlike DNA polymerase:
- RNA polymerases can start on a template _______________ (but still uses 3' OH to link the strands)

- RNA polymerases _________ proofread and have no exonuclease activity

- Unlike DNA polymerase:
- RNA polymerases can start on a template WITHOUT A PRIMER (but still uses 3' OH to link the strands)

- RNA polymerases DO NOT proofread and have no exonuclease activity

What are the 3 processes of RNA processing?

Capping: a different nucleotide gets added to the 5' end (as soon as RNA starts coming out) = 5' cap (protects mRNA)

Tailing: increases mRNA stability, aids in export from nucleus = poly A tail


Splicing: removing introns from the transcript and joins exons together

What catalyzes splicing?

- catalyzed by the spliceosome

What are snRNPs

snRNPs form the core of the spliceosome
- are made of snRNA & proteins

What are the three parts to ribosome structure?

1. A site = aminoacyl site
2. P site = peptidyl site

3. E site = exit site


APE = the direction that the tRNA goes in when translation occus

Why is the plasma membrane important and what is it:

Biomembrane that separates the internal contents of a cell from its external environment

- Regulates the traffic of substances into and out of the cell

- Provides an interface to carry out many vital cellular activities

The plasma membrane is a __________ of lipid, protein, and carbohydrate.

Plasma membrane is a MOSAIC of lipid, protein, and carbohydrate.

List the three types of membrane proteins:

1. Transmembrane proteins
2. Lipid-anchored proteins

3. Peripheral membrane proteins

Name the three influences on membrane fluidity

1. Length of phospholipid tails (shorter vs. longer can affect the stiffness of the membrane)
2. Double bonds in phospholipid tails

3. Presence of cholesterol (can increase and decrease fluidity)

Shorter lipid tails interact _____ with each other, making the membrane ______ fluid.

Shorter lipid tails interact LESS with each other, making the membrane MORE fluid.

Double bonds create _______ in the lipid tails = unsaturated fatty acids
This _________ interactions between adjacent tails, making bilayer ______ fluid.

Double bonds create KINKS in the lipid tails = unsaturated fatty acids
This REDUCES interactions between adjacent tails, making bilayer MORE fluid

Cholesterol and Fluidity:
• Tends to stabilize membranes

• Effect depends on temperature

• At higher temperatures, cholesterol makes membrane ____ fluid

• At lower temperatures, cholesterol makes membrane ______ fluid

At higher temperatures, cholesterol makes membrane LESS fluid (liquid is disordered)
• At lower temperatures, cholesterol makes membrane MORE fluid (liquid is ordered)

Osmosis

movement of water across membranes in response to solute concentration gradients

- helpful when the solute cannot cross membrane to reach equilibrium so the water will move

Crenation = ?
Lysis = ?

Crenation = cell shrinkage
Lysis = cell swelling

T/F, transporters are slower than channels

TRUE, channels are very quick

What are the three kinds of transporters

1. Uniporters - single ion/molecule transported
- ONE DIRECTION

2. Symporters - two or more diff types transported

- BOTH IN SAME DIRECTION

3. Antiporters - two or more diff types transported

- OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS (one in, one out)

Transporters that uses energy sources to change conformation are also called ________.

Transporters that uses energy sources to change conformation are also called PUMPS.

Out of primary active transport and secondary active transport, which one uses pre-existing gradient to drive the active transport and which one uses direct energy to transport the solutes?

Direct energy = primary active transport
Pre-existing gradient = secondary active transport

A Na+/K+ pump is what type of pump

an electrogenic pump
- generates an electrical gradient

- net export of 1 positive charge (3 out 2 in)

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