UESCA Running Coach Certification - copy
Caused when excessive stress placed on a disk causes the annulus fibrosis to crack and some of the nucleus pulpous leaks out.
Herniated Disk
Extreme posterior curve in the spine (sway back)
Lordosis
Extreme anterior curve in the spine (hunchback)
Kyphosis
Position of the spine in which minimal neuromuscular activity is required to maintain a standing, relaxed position.
Neutral spine
Three primary joint classifications
Fibrous, Cartilaginous, Synovial
Three joint movement (functional) classifications
Immoveable, Slightly Moveable, Freely Moveable
Classification of joints most prevalent in the body
Synovial
Three types of muscle fibers in the body
Type I (Oxidative), Type II-A (Fast Oxidative Glycolytic), Type II-B (Fast Glycolytic)
Two primary classifications of muscle fibers in the body
Fast Twitch (II-A & II-B) and Slow Twitch (Type I)
Principle which states when activity intensity progresses from low or moderate to high, there is a hierarchy as to which types of muscle fibers are recruited.
Henneman's Size Principle
Increase in the size of a muscle fiber
Hypertrophy
Increase in the number of muscle fibers
Hyperplasia
As a running coach, your primary focus should be?
Enhancing your client's ability to maintain posture and improve movement.
Term often used to denote an individual remembering how to perform a task, or the body's ability to regain muscular strength rapidly.
Muscle memory
Two primary areas of function of the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) (Select all that apply)
Sensory (afferent)
Motor (efferent)
Three types of cartilage
Hyaline (articular), fibrocartilage, elastic
Fascia influences posture and facilitates body movement.
True
Fascia can contract with or independently of muscles
True
Primary purpose of the core musculature
Provide stability & rigidity to the spine and pelvic region
Primary purpose of a warm-up
Increase core temperature
Areas enhanced by a proper warm-up
Increased force capacity of a muscle, decreased chance for injury, increased range of motion
Benefits gained via an increase in muscle temperature are lost approximately 45 minutes after a warm-up ends. ***
False
During an eccentric contraction, there is less stress per muscle fiber than during a concentric contraction
False
When a muscle contracts to decelerate a limb that has a load applied
Eccentric contraction
After abruptly ceasing intense exercise such as running, blood vessels in the legs are dilated, and, therefore, blood can quickly pool in the legs and feet
True
Cells found in muscles and whose job is to attach to existing muscle fibers to form new fibers (process occurs during normal muscle growth as well as during injury recovery)
Myosatellite cells (satellite cells)
As a certified running coach you can advise or prescribe any type of medication to a client
False
Lactate is not a fuel and is only a waste byproduct believed (by many) to cause "the burn"
False
The end product of glycolysis, which is converted into acetyl coA that enters the Krebs cycle when there is sufficient oxygen available
Pyruvate
Can be oxidized and used as fuel for the Kreb's cycle, or can be converted to lactate, which, in turn, is converted into glycogen in the liver via the Cori cycle
Pyruvate
Term for lactic acid, minus one protein
Lactate
Point at which oxygen consumption plateau is reached
Steady state (or steady rate)
The result of a buildup of acidity in the muscle cells (the acidity is caused by the release of hydrogen ions during fast turnover of ATP)
"The burn" (which is the body's way of self-regulation so it does not push itself too far and cause damage)
Result of an abnormality of neuromuscular control that is a response to muscle fatigue (and NOT a depletion of electrolytes)
Exercise-Associated Muscle Cramps (EAMC)
When one muscle is shortening, the opposing muscle also is shortening ***
False
The order in which muscles activate and work together to allow the body to move
Kinetic linking (the kinetic chain)
In functional body movement, muscles and body parts work in isolation
False
Exists when there is a lack of balance between two opposing muscles which surround a joint
Muscular imbalance
Improper biomechanics, potential for denegeration of joints, overuse of muscles (which can lead to injury), premature muscle fatigue
Ways in which muscle imbalances can affect a runner
The amount a muscle can stretch
Length
Term for a muscle that is not elongated enough or is too tight to provide adequate force production
Short muscle
Term for a muscle that is too elongated or is stretched too long to provide adequate force production (often called "inhibited" muscle)
Long muscle
Term often used to denote muscles which contract minimally or not at all
Shut down
If a muscle is shortened or lengthened too much, force production of the muscle will increase to the point where too much force production is created ***
False
Typically caused by reduced muscle activation, it results from a muscle (e.g., a prime mover muscle) not being able to produce the required force (thus, a synergist or support muscle takes over the primary mover's responsibility)
Muscular compensation
Science of adapting postural and equipment changes at a workstation
Ergonomics
Term which means without oxygen
Anaerobic
Being in an anaerobic state typically has more to do with a lack of utilization of oxygen rather than the absence of oxygen
True
ATP is generated in the mitochondria of cells and can be produced only anaerobically (rather than both anaerobically and aerobically)
False
At any given time the body stores only a small amount of ATP, which must be generated continuously generated on a cellular level
True
The highest intensity level at which blood lactate concentrations are maintained at a steady-state (equillibrium) level during exercise bouts of of approximately 60 minutes
Maximum Lactate Steady State (MLSS)
Point at which the ventilation (breathing) rate increases faster than the workload. (Note: Until this point is reached, the workload and respiration rate increase linearly.)
Ventilatory Threshold (VT)
Represented when blood lactate levels reach 4 millimoles per liter (mmo/L) during exercise bouts. Note: This can only be ascertained using a blood lactate analyzer, and, as such, this assessment is not used for this certification. However, I think it's important to know!)
Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation (OBLA)
Two main circulatory systems in the body
Pulmonary and Systemic
Circulatory system which involves the heart & lungs. (Deoxygenated blood leaves the heart and goes to the lungs, where it is reoxygenated and returned to the heart.)
Pulmonary
Circulatory system which relates to circulation throughout the body with the exception of the lungs. (Oxygenated blood leaves the heart via arteries to supply the body, and the deoxygenated blood returns to the heart via veins.)
Systemic
Three types of blood cells
Red, white, and platelets
Protein found in muscles (receives oxygen from blood and transports it to the mitochondria)
Myoglobin
Blood flow allocation within the body is based on need
True
Three classifications of energy systems during exercise
Phosphagen, Glycolytic, Oxidative
In order for a muscle contraction to occur, ATP is required
True
Process which generates ATP aerobically
Krebs cycle (oxidative phosphorylation)
Process which generates ATP anaerobically
Cori cycle
First primary energy system, used for primary energy
Phospagen system (ATP-CP system)
Second energy system
Glycolytic
Third energy system (often called the Citric Acid System, TCA Cycle, and Krebs Cycle)
Oxidative
Primary 'players' involved in maintaining blood glucose homeostasis.
Insulin and glucagon
While glycogen in the liver can be deployed throughout the body, glycogen in the muscles stays localized within the muscle.
True
Physiological adaptations which occur as a result of aerobic training: *****
I. All of the above
Well-trained skeletal muscle has a decreased capacity to generate ATP aerobically (relative to non-trained skeletal muscle) because of mitochondria
False
Signs of being aerobically de-conditioned
E. A and D
Training which occurs in an environment substantially depleted of oxygen (can be done in either natural or simulated environments)
Hypoxic training
Training done in the presence of a dense oxygen supply (can be performed only in simulated environments using supplemental oxygen)
Hyperoxic training
High-altitude training is defined as training at altitudes of how many feet and above?
C. 5,000
The effects of high-altitude training (HAT) have been shown to last up to how many days after returning to sea level?
C. 15
Term that refers to the volume (percent) of red blood cells in blood.
Hematocrit
Physiological adaptation that occurs from training in the heat
An increase in blood plasma volume
Term for abnormally high levels of red blood cells
Polycythemia
Criteria which must be met in order for hyperoxic training to occur
Individual administering oxygen is certified to do so
Must be deemed legal by local/state laws and sport governing body
Done under clearance from a physician
Running term which equates to a reduction in the force generated by a runner
Muscle fatigue
Factors which impact ability to complete a marathon, in regard to glycogen reserves
D. All of the above
Difference between oxygen consumption at rest and the elevated rate of oxygen consumption following an exercise bout.
Oxygen debt
Represents the intake of oxygen after exercise ceases.
Excess Post-Exercise Oxygen Consumption (EPOC)
Three areas oxygen debt addresses when "repaying" debt. Select all that apply.
A. Replenishing high-energy phosphate stores.
B. Oxidizing lactate
C. Supplying the demands of an increased metabolic rate
Largest volume of air the lungs can hold
Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
Largest amount of air that can be expelled after taking a deep breath
Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
Two ways cardiac output can be increased. Select all that apply
B. Increase in heart rate
C. Increase in stroke volume
Point when a person becomes "out of breath"
Ventilatory Threshold (VT)
RPE scale UESCA advises its coaches to use *******
Borg CR10 Scale
Phenomenon related to a natural upward drift in heart rate while overall intensity remains the same/constant
Cardiac Drift
Represented by the number of beats HR drops in one minute immediately following cessation of an activity/exercise
Recovery Heart Rate
An individual's maximal capacity to transport and use oxygen during exercise
VO2 Max (also known as Maximum Effort HR)
Relates to how efficient an athlete is
Exercise Economy
The greater the intensity, the greater the reliance on carbohydrates, and, therfore, the less sustainable the exercise is for long durations of time.
True
Representative of the level at which blood lactate accumulates in the bloodstream. This occurs when lactate production exceeds lactate clearing.
Lactate Threshold (LT)
The spine is part of the appendicular skeleton.
False
The heel bone is the cuboid.
False
Lordosis refers to excessive thoracic spinal curvature.
False
The Lateral Femoral Epicondyle is a small, lateral, protruding aspect at the inferior aspect of the femur.
True
Abduction refers to moving away from the midline of the body.
True
The transverse plane divides the body into right and left halves (e.g., the legs move in the transverse plane when pedaling or running).
False
A herniated disk is caused when excessive stress placed on a disk causes the annulus fibrosis to crack and some of the nucleus pulposus leaks out.
True
Stretching is an absolute requirement for all athletes in respect to warming up.
True
If a muscle is shortened or lengthened too much, force production of the muscle will diminish to the point where minimal or no force production is possible.
True
Which is not part of a muscle?
C. Mesoactin
Hypertrophy is the reduction in the size of a muscle.
False
The primary role of satellite cells is to assist in muscle hypertrophy, recovery from an injured muscle, or maintenance of muscle mass.
True
What is not a muscle fiber type?
C. Type Four-C
The soleus muscle is primarily composed of slow twitch musclefibers.
True
White blood cells carry oxygen to the body.
False
Veins carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body.
False
Adenosine Triphosphate is required for a muscle contraction to occur.
True
Which of the following processes is part of the Cori Cycle?
Lactate is converted to glucose in the liver
Catabolism of fatty acids yields less adenosine triphosphate than the catabolism of glucose.
False
Glycerol and fatty acids are broken down by the body for energy.
True
The oxidative energy system is the shortest of the three energy systems in regard to duration.
False
The Conconi Test has been shown to underestimate lactate threshold.
False
When constructing lactate threshold based training zones, the bottom range of the Recovery Zone (zone 1A) equals __________ percent of the top of end of the Max Aerobic zone (zone 3B).
50
MLSS stands for:
Maximum Lactate Steady State
Lactate threshold:
Is representative of the level at which blood lactate accumulates in the blood stream. This occurs when lactate production exceeds lactate clearing.
Anaerobic Threshold is more of a concept than an established metric.
True
Which of the following is a reason for cardiac drift to occur?
Increase in body temperature
The term pronation means external rotation of a body part
False
The most common classification of lever in the body is:
Class 3
In most all US states, an individual does not need a prescription from a doctor to receive an initial evaluation by a physical therapist.
True
Below are common traits of an individual with a leg length discrepancy except:
Rotation of the cervical spine in the transverse plane
Of the following, which is a normal biomechanical movement/issue?
Mild foot pronation
During the Overhead Squat Screen, the arms falling forward could be suggestive of:
Tight latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major
Substantial vertical oscillation while running is most often exhibited by those who have a short stride.
False
Too long or short of a stride length will reduce a runner’sefficiency.
True
Which of the following is NOT a correct aspect of proper running form?
Large arm swing
Those converting to a midfoot strike often feel tightness/soreness in which muscle?
Soleus
The following aspects are true of the stretch shortening cycle (SSC) except:
The stiffer a muscle is, the lower the amount of energy can be stored and released
Passive movement is a muscular movement caused by consciously contracting a muscle(s).
False
The cause of tendinosis is a disruption of collagen fibers of a tendon, not inflammation.
True
Running with a substantial posterior pelvic tilt will likely increase the chance for hamstring injury because of the increased tension on the hamstrings during the swing phase of the gait cycle.
False
Tight calf muscles often contribute to plantar fasciitis.
True
Which of the following is not related to blister formation?
Minimalist shoes
Running is hard on the knees.
False
50-75% of running injuries are due to what?
Overuse
Which of the following is NOT a resistance-training category?
Functionality
Successful concurrent endurance and strength training largely has to do with the duration of time between training sessions, as well as the different muscles used in the training sessions.
True
Which of the following is a plyometric-based exercise?
Squat jump
In which two planes of movement does running occur?
Sagittal and Transverse
Negative effects from concurrent endurance/strength training are limited to the muscles used for both endurance and strength applications
True
Unlike running volume, strength training increases should be based around 10% volume increases.
False
Muscles and fascia work independently of one another.
False
A foam roller is a training tool that facilitates __________.
Myofascial release
Keeping the leg straight and flexing the ankle stretches the soleus. ********
False
All of the following are types of stretches except:
Transverse
The main purpose of the muscle spindle is to __________.
Sense a change in the muscle length
The Golgi Tendon Organ is located at the junction of the muscle and ligament.
False
It is advised that any athlete should be cleared for exercise in the prior 12 months before beginning an ultramarathon training program.
True
Which is not a question on the Health History Questionnaire?
Do you exercise more than 8 times per week?
As a certified UESCA coach, you are qualified to perform and analyze blood-based tests such as blood enzyme tests.
False
What area does the Athlete Profile not look to determine?
Nutritional deficiencies
When establishing the coaching process, areas such as cancellation policies and billing dates should be discussed.
True
If a physician does not clear an athlete to begin an exercise program but you believe the athlete should have no problem with exercising based on your assessments, it is fine to start coaching the athlete.
False
Keeping a training log is not substantially beneficial to goal setting.
False
When assessing a client’s potential, which of the following is NOT a factor:
Assessment of current diet
Even if runners have past running experience, if they have not run and/or done any form of exercise in the past 12 months, they should be considered novices.
True
For novice runners, what is the recommended limit for 10k races in one season?
3
For an experienced runner, regardless if an event is a goal or training event, what is the maximum number of marathons an experienced athlete should complete in a year?
3
S.M.A.R.T Goals stand for:
Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time- Based
Overtraining often inhibits the ability of a client to recover both mentally and physically.
True
The process of peaking will guarantee the client will have their best possible performance on race day.
False
Experienced athletes do not have an advantage over new athletes in regard to the process of peaking for a race.
False
Which of the following is not a taper guideline?
Reduce cardiovascular training days and increase
strength training days
What is NOT one of the criticisms of classic periodization?
Increased chance for injury to occur
A classic periodization model is most appropriate for what type of athlete?
New runner
Which of the following factors does NOT affect the degree and frequency of volume increases?
Gender
What is the typical mileage range of the longest run when training for a half marathon?
12-13 miles
Which of the following is the generally accepted maximum long distance run when training for a marathon?
22 miles
Overtraining often inhibits the ability of a client to recover both mentally and physically.
True
Symptoms of overtraining tend to be a halt of forward progress and overall fatigue for relatively long periods of time (longer than is normal with a particular client).
True
The process of peaking will guarantee the client will have their best possible performance on race day.
False
Which of the following guidelines does NOT apply to two-a-days (TADs)?
Must do at least two TADs per week
What are the two primary components of intervals?
Intensity and time
Which of the following is NOT a threshold workout?
Sprint intervals
Which of the following is NOT a form of active rest/recovery?
Long steady distance
The Tabata Study demonstrated that endurance-based exercise is superior to high-intensity exercise.
False
When integrated properly, HIIT training is applicable to clients of varying fitness levels.
True
The correct pacing strategy when running a hilly course is to run fast up the hills and recover on the downhills.
False
What is the equation used to determine percent grade of a course profile?
100 x rise/run
During a race, the pace should be determined __________.
By metrics established during training
Which of the following is NOT a common pacing mistake?
Pacing by feel based on one's exertion level
All of the following are aspects of the Central Governor Model except:
Peripheral fatigue initiates the Central Governor Model
Varying one’s pace during a race (assuming no terrain changes) is an optimal pacing strategy.
False
Which of the following can be helpful in increasing a client’s motivation?
Keeping a training log
Which of the following is NOT an aspect of mental training examined in this course:
Meditation
Mental burnout is solely a function of too much intensity or volume in a training program.
False
The purpose of desensitization is to reduce or eliminate phobias through repeated and increased exposure to the phobia.
True
External imagery occurs when athletes see themselves from the perspective of someone else or from a video camera (third person).
True
Mental imagery is most effective when:
The physical skill is practiced in close time duration to the mental imagery of the same skill
The last meal the day prior to a race should consist of what percentage of carbohydrates?
70
Which of the following issues can negatively impact an individual regarding carbohydrate loading:
Digestive system issues
The goal of carbohydrate loading is to maximize endurance performance by decreasing the muscle’s glycogen stores.
False
The body can burn upwards of 750 or more calories/hour while the body can only digest 200-250 calories/hour.
True
What is the correct formula to calculate sweat rate?
Pre-exercise weight minus post-exercise weight plus fluid intake during activity
In the event of hyponatremia, the athlete should:
Be transferred immediately to a medical facility
Which of the following is not classified as an electrolyte:
Protein
It is possible to work within your scope of practice but outside your scope of knowledge. Conversely, it is possible to work within your scope of expertise but outside your scope of practice.
True
Runners should stay alert on roadways and always run on the right-hand side of the road, running in the direction of traffic.
False
Above everything else, safety is the most important element in a training program.
True
Regardless of the amount of miles on a running shoe, it should be replaced if:
All of the above
Depending on the source, it is advised that running shoes be replaced within what mileage range?
400-600 miles
It often takes several weeks to break in a new shoe before it feels comfortable.
False
Related to running shoes, it’s theorized that the largest amount of cushion loss occurs within the first ________ miles.
200
What is the difference between conventional and minimalist shoes?
Conventional shoes provide support and stability, minimalist shoes rely on the feet for their inherent strength
After a race, it’s recommended to have an athlete spend the rest of the day walking around.
False
It’s not recommended for an athlete to perform a self-assessment of their performance directly after an event. They should wait until they’ve cleaned up, refueled, and relaxed.
True
When flying to an event, it’s important for an athlete to put all important race gear in their checked luggage, not in their carry-on bag.
False
Which of the following is NOT a way to be generally prepared for the race:
Buy a new pair of shoes for the race the day before
In respect to liability insurance, it is advised to get at least a 1 million dollar (USD) per occurrence policy.
True
It is fine and advised to use standard, boilerplate liability waivers for your athletes.
False
Physical contact with an athlete that is not necessary from a coaching perspective should not occur.
True
Which of the following can a coach do?
Inform athletes on nutrition guidelines
If you are not qualified to perform a physiological test such as VO2 Max or blood lactate, you must outsource it.
True
Some drugs are only banned by national or world anti-doping agencies at high levels/concentrations (e.g., caffeine).
True
When communicating with an athlete, it’s fine to discuss matters outside of coaching such as religion, politics, detailed personal life, etc.
False
The methods used to motivate an athlete will vary by the individual, as not all athletes will respond the same way to a particular method of motivation.
True
Which is NOT a role of a coach?
Diagnose an injury
The stiffer the muscle-tendon unit is, the less the elastic response.
False
Cuestionario |
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sociologi som vetenskap |
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CHAPTER 2: ALFRED ADLER: Individual Psychology |
10-42 sWs |
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INTRODUCTION QUIZ IN TOP |
CHAPTER 1: SIGMUND FREUD PSYCHOANALYSIS |
buss |
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Modalities |
History (20th Century) |
pedagogia |
introduction |
2.2 |
History (1800s) |
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Literary Terms A |
2.1 |
1.1 |
catabolismo |
metabolismo y catabolismo |
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UE7- intro à l'histoire de la médecine |
instuderingsfrågorinstuderingsfrågor |
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History (The Renaissance) |
History (Medieval Period) |
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Lunch |
Breakfast - Classic |
AUSTRALIEN |
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KNSS 307 physical growth maturation and aging |
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Organic Synthesis HT - copy |
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Antiken, Grekland |
B |
social |
1.2 - 1.39e |
Quiz 4 REVIEWER |
Social Vocab |
mixtures |
Avoirudk |
Qualitative Research Methods Mid TermMethods
Case Studies
Ethical Research
Interviews
Textual Analysis
Coding
Field Research
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Anththo quiz week 6 |
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PY1507.3 ~ promoting MH |
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LatinDS LATIN |
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Gov't Unit 1 (Part 2) |
Gov't Unit 1 (Part I) |
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english quiz |
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Homework |
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PhysicsPhysics[Materials] |
glosor |
SCIENCE |
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6008 IT GovernanceExam Practice |
CHM 7-9 |
6008 The NIST FrameworkExam Practice |
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Labratory Equipment |
WHIMIS |
Prendre |
faire |
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Être |
Anatomie - examen pratique IIIexamen au lab |
Avoir |
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social psychology |
pharmaco |
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Earth Science |
Real world mathMath you will encounter in real life scenarios. |
Algebra |
Algebra Basics / Pre-algebra |
Foundational Math |
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3 Times Tables- SAM |
2 Times Tables- SAM |
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computer networks - vocsWHAT IS COMPUTER NETWORKS?
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● An inter... |
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UE7-maladies, traitements: def et représenatations |
phrasel verb |
Sociology 150 Midterm |
6070 Transport Protoco TCPexam pratice |
Political Spectrum (Socials) |
Kemi |
HISTORY |
Criminal Psychology |
6070 Transport Protocol UDPpratice Questions |
Verbes en espagnol |
Biology questions |
chap 37 de mort |
Physical/Chemical Properties of Matter & Classifying Matter |
phrasal verbs |
Vocabularies |
Psykologi |
Ak paragraaf 1 |
Business Marketing Aim B |
perfect squares |
Chapter 1 - Economic ModelsMicroeconomic Theory - Nicholson & Snyder |
Renal |
sport test |
Begrepp, religion sida 64-65 |
research methods |
Biology key words |