(NBCD) MNT 2

1. A genetic disorder characterized by a constant sense of hunger or hyperphagia that usually begins at two years of age.*

c. Prader-Willi Syndrome

2. A 35-year old Filipina weighs 130lbs with a height measurement of 5 feet. What is her BMI?*(25.40)

b. BMI 25.8, Obese I (ASIA PACIFIC)

3. The hormone _________ decreases appetite and increases the dissipation of energy through heat production also known as thermogenesis.*

b. Neuropeptide Y

4. After a meal, our body’s energy expenditure increases for some time to breakdown the food into nutrients that the body can utilize and store. This process is known as*

d. Thermogenic Effect of Food

5. Abundant uncoupling proteins in the body prevents weight gain. Which type of fat releases stored energy and is considered metabolically active?*

a. Brown adipose tissue (PAYAT)

6. A dietitian needs to determine a patient’s risk for cardiovascular disease. The following anthropometric measurements must be assessed except*

c. Exercise history

7. A 45 years old female has a WHR of 0.9 is*

d. All of the above

8. The following are comorbidities related to obesity except*

c. Psoriasis

9. Choose the statement that best represents the patient’s readiness for lifestyle change*

d. “Please recommend some tips on how to do grocery shopping for fresh produce.”

10. Psychological assessment is important in helping patients in their weight loss journey. The RND must include the following psychological factors during the patient interview except*

a. Diet history

11. A 60kg female patient with comorbidities(5%) needs to lose weight. What is the minimum target weight loss from baseline in 6 months?* ( 60kg x 0.05 = 3 kg) *comorbidities is typically recommended to be about 5-10% of their body weight.

b. 3kg

12. The following recommendations for weight loss must be given by the RND except*

b. Take Orlistat 2 to 3 times a day with meals

13. Choose the strategies that do not promote behavior modification*

d. Social media, watching Netflix, rest

14. Which weight loss medications are approved by the US-FDA?*

c. Phentermine, Orlistat, Topiramate (POT)

15. Criteria for bariatric surgery:*

d. All of the above

16. This type of Bariatric Surgery requires the placement of a foreign object in the form of a band*

b. LAGB (Laparoscopic Adjustable Gastric Banding)

17. Combination procedure in bariatric surgery results to hormonal influences. The production of Ghrelin hormone is likewise decreased resulting to*

d. Induced satiety (STATE OF FULLNESS)

18. Which type of bariatric surgery can possibly exacerbate symptoms of Gastroesophageal Reflux?*

b. Roux-en-Y Gastric Bypass

(small pouch from the stomach and then rerouting the small intestine to this pouch)

19. The Biliopancreatic Diversion with Duodenal Switch procedure results to some nutrition-related conditions. Choose one that does not apply.*

d. Indigestion and bloating

20. The following are the criteria for Anorexia Nervosa except*

c. Recurrent episodes of binge eating within 2 hours

21. A patient suffering from Bulimia Nervosa is at risk of colon injury due to*

a. Laxative abuse

22. When counseling a patient with Bulimia Nervosa the following must be encouraged except*

d. Suggest foods for binge eating episode

23. A 16 year-old patient with normal weight for height and age verbalizes that she wants to die because she is very fat. She believes that people are always staring at her because she is ugly. What should the RND do?*

a. Refer to a psychiatrist immediately

24. A patient manifesting the following symptoms has a diagnosis of Symptoms: Repeated chewing and spitting of food, bingeing and purging once a week for 3 weeks, exercising 3 hours daily*(BODY IMAGE)

d. Eating Disorders Not Otherwise Specified (EDNOS)

25. Muscle Dysmorphia also known as Bigorexia is characterized by the following manifestations except*

c. Eating at night

26. The following are consequences of malnutrition in relation to immune response during infection except*

a. Poor appetite and fatigue

27. A patient with an oral temperature of 38.8 degrees Celsius needs a proper nutrition intervention to support metabolic changes in the body. What should the RND do?*

c. Give additional high biologic value protein and fluids

28. Diarrhea with occasional constipation, vague abdominal pain and occasional rectal bleeding are symptoms of Amoebiasis. What type of diet must be prescribed by the RND?*

b. Liquid, bland and low residue

29. The following micronutrients may be deficient among children with Ascariasis lumbricoides*

a. Iron and Vitamin C

30. Dietary management for Malaria includes a high protein and high carbohydrate diet by increases total caloric intake by how much?*

d. 50%

31. Cholera is an acute dehydrating disease caused by Vibrio Cholerae. It’s symptoms include profuse rice water-like, mucoid stools with fish odor. The primary nutrition intervention goal is*

d. Intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement

32. A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms of infection: Weakness, anorexia, cough, red tongue, fever and pea green colored stool. What could be the patient’s medical condition?*

a. Typhoid fever

33. A patient diagnosed with Rheumatic Fever(affecting the heart, joints, skin, and brain) was prescribed cortisone(Anti-Inflammatory/steroid ). Nutrition intervention must include*

b. Sodium restriction 1000 mg/day

34. Isoniazid, a drug for Tuberculosis treatment, is a Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) antagonist. Patients on this medication must be advised to eat more of the following* (Vit. B6- variety of protein foods)

a. Egg, carrots, camote, tuna, beef, banana and peas

35. A patient diagnosed with Tuberculosis (vit. B6) has normal BMI. How much protein should be prescribed per day?*

b. High protein 75 to 120g per day

36. A patient with Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever must avoid*

b. Dark leafy vegetables

37. Food safety is essential in managing patients with AIDS. The following are food safety measures to be observed except*

(b,c,d valid measures for food safety)

a. Keep cold food at 35 to 50 degrees Fahrenheit

38. To ensure food safety, keeping food between 45 to 145 degrees Fahrenheit or 7.2 to 62.7 degrees Celsius must not exceed*

a. 2 hours

39. Stage 1 dietary management of poliomyelitis includes 30 to 200 ml tube feeding alternating with water every* (tube feeding, wait 2 hrs, then water)

c. 2 hours

40. A patient with Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome must wear surgical mask at all times except when*

a. Eating

41. Middle East Respiratory Syndrome or MERS-COV can be transmitted through*

c. Camel milk and meat

42. Virgin Coconut Oil has antimicrobial properties. How much VCO must be given to a patient weighing 176lbs during the first day of treatment?*

a. 48ml

44. HIV virus may be transmitted from mother to fetus through pregnancy. The virus is also found in breastmilk in low concentrations. The RND must*

d. Encourage breastfeeding exclusively

45. The normal range of body temperature is*

c. 36.1 to 37.2 degrees Celsius

46. Metabolic changes occur during surgery. The following nutrition related implications are true except*

c. Sodium loss

47. Prior to surgery, the patient must be put on nil per os or NPO for how many hours?*

a. 8 hours

48. Post surgery, the patient must be put on NPO for 24 to 48 hours to prevent what?*

d. Aspiration

49. What type of food must be served on the first day post Tonsillectomy?*

d. Very cold and mild flavored

50. Gastric surgeries result to the following nutrition related conditions except*

c. Decreased peristalsis

51. After 7 days of gastric surgery, the patient can be given the following except*

d. High carbohydrate sources

52. The patient is complaining of nausea, cramping, sweating, palpitations 10 minutes after eating. What is she experiencing?*

c. Early dumping syndrome

53. What must an RND recommend to prevent rapid dumping of food into jejunum?*

a. Small frequent feedings in supine position

54. A patient who underwent ileostomy must be monitored for signs and symptoms of nutrient deficiencies for the following micronutrients except*(deficiencies in vitamin B6 are not typically a primary concern after ileostomy )

a. Vitamin B6

55. The following are gas forming foods that must be avoided by patients with colostomy except*

d. Squash

56. Surgery of the intestines results to changes in*

a. Production of waste products, absorption of nutrients and motility

57. A patient has a high risk of developing oxalate stones (cause is high in calcium). The RND must recommend intake of high oxalate foods to be avoided. Choose the food that is not high in oxalate content.*

d. Banana

58. Post cholecystectomy, the patient must be advised to go on a low fat diet due to*

b. Steatorrhea

59. 19 years old, pre-burn weight 100lbs, third degree burn on the right hand. Compute for the total energy requirement.*

a. 1200 kcal

60. A patient has suffered second degree burn on his right arm and right leg. How much protein must be recommended?*

c. 20% of TER

61. Stress contributes to cancer development by affecting the*

c. Immune system

62. The following are carcinogenic in nature, except*

c. Roasted chicken

63. Soy, green tea, fruits and vegetables contain plant chemicals that can neutralize free radicals and aid in cancer prevention. These substances are also known as*

d. Phytochemicals

64. Consumption of this food increases the risk for liver cancer*

b. Moldy peanuts (inked to an increased risk of liver cancer)

65. A cancer patient may experience eating problems. Choose one that does not apply*

d. Polydipsia (This refers to excessive thirst and is not a common eating problem associated with cancer.)

66. A patient on chemotherapy is complaining of mouth sores. The RND must recommend*

c. Cold beverages

67. A patient with brain cancer undergoing radiation therapy may experience the following nutrition related side effects except*

d. Insomnia

68. Define immunotherapy or biological therapy for cancer treatment.*

c. It uses the body’s immune system to fight cancer cells

69. What type of dietary management must be recommended to a patient on palliative care for end stage cancer?*

b. Consider the patient’s informed preference

70. Post mastectomy, the breast cancer patient is complaining of pain. When is the best time to offer food?*

c. Offer food when pain is at the lowest level

71. A cancer survivor is seeking advice on how to prevent recurrence. Choose the correct answer.*

c. Fat consumption must be less than 30% of total energy requirement

72. A female patient’s Food Frequency Questionnaire shows daily intake of fried foods, beef and butter. She is high risk for what type of cancer?*

d. Breast

73. Nausea and vomiting is a common side effect of cancer therapy. The following nutrition interventions are necessary except*

c. Offer high fat food

74. Cancer patients often experience loss of appetite. The following are ways to stimulate appetite except*

d. Give alcoholic beverages anytime

75. Excessive intake of this polyunsaturated fatty acid increases the risk of colon cancer and pancreatic cancer.*

b. Omega 6

76. After eating shrimps, a woman immediately experienced difficulty of breathing, increased heart beat and lightheadedness. She is experiencing a systemic allergic reaction called*

d. Anaphylaxis (potentially life-threatening allergic reaction)

77. This is known as the true allergic reaction to food as a result of immune response*

b. Food hypersensitivity

78. The following are common causes of food allergies except*

d. Buckwheat

79. A patient who is hypersensitive to shellfish(high in zinc) must be monitored for nutrient deficiencies of*

a. Zinc and Magnesium

80. The following are symptoms of anaphylactic shock except*

d. Increased blood pressure

81. Diagnosis of food allergy can be determined using the oral challenge through what type of diet?*

c. Hypoallergenic diet

82. This diet is adequate but excludes the food triggers.*

b. Avoidance diet

83. A patient manifests dry, scaly skin. What possible nutrient deficiency does this patient have?*

c. Protein

84. A patient’s skin has goose flesh-like lesions. What type of food must the RND recommend?*

a. Yellow and orange fruits and vegetables

85. A teenager is complaining of blackheads all over her T-zone. The RND advises him to avoid*

c. French fries

86. Physical fitness enables the body to perform the following activities except*

d. Sit still

87. What is produced in the muscles during intense exercise which can lead to painful and sore muscles?*

a. Lactic Acid

88. What is the ability of a joint or series of joints to move through unrestricted and pain free range of motion?*

c. Flexibility

89. The following are components of physical fitness except*

d. Resilience

90. The muscle action that requires the use of energy in the form of ATP*

a. Relaxation

91. The type of muscle that compromises 40% of body weight and is involved in heat production during exercise and motion.*

d. Skeletal muscle

92. This type of exercise does not require oxygen.*

c. Anaerobic exercise

93. What is the macronutrient composition post competition or during the recovery phase?*

d. 75% CHO, 10% Protein, 15% Fat

94. Compute for the carbohydrate requirement of a 65kg tri-athlete.*

a. 520g to 650g Carbohydrates

95. Compute for the protein requirement of a 55kg boxer.*

a. 95g to 99g Protein

96. What is the choice of fuel to sustain a high intensity exercise that lasts between 3 to 20 minutes?

d. Lipolysis

97. What is the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors?*