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micro final

what is used to treat microbe infections

antibiotics

what is selective toxicity

killing harmful stuff, w/o damaging the host

3 classifications of antibiotics

natural, synthetic, semi-synthetic

what type of inclusions store energy

metachromatic, polysaccharide,and sulfur granules & lipid inclusions

bacillus and clostridium have what

endospores

bacteria that produce endospores regrow into what

vegetative bacteria

3 locations of endospores

terminal, sub-term, and central

structure of endospore

exosporium, spore coat, cortex, core

what is sporulation

poor env. triggers gene change, turns veg cell into endospore

steps of germenation

activation (cut open spore)
germination (take in H2O and germ. agents)

outgrowth (makes new veg cells)

3 physical requirements for bacterial growth dynamic

temp, ph, osmotic pressure

what is a cardinal temperature

has min, optimal, max temp (like to be at optimal)

what are the classifications of philes

psychro (cold), meso (mod), thermo (heat)

what temp is the danger zone

15-52

what is pasteurs chickens exp.

too high body temp for anthrax to colonize (humans-37, vs chickens 42)

what are the steps of bacterial milking

grow bacteria in - water balance
respond & produce ectoine

return to + water balance & get rid of ectoine to env.

other than binary fission, bacteria grow by a process called:

budding; unicellular yeast, bump forms and breaks off to make new cell

binary fission process:

replication, wall and memb divide, p. memb forms around DNA, seperation

_____ happens in an enclosed system with a fixed amt of nutrients

batch culture

bacterial growth curve for batch culture

lag, log, stationary, death

what phase of b. growth has no growth and has a variable length

lag phase

what phase of b. growth do cells start to divide and give us the / line and depends on generation time and env. conditions

exponential/ log phase

stationary phase does what?

slows down growth rate

death phase does what

cell death, endospore start sporulation

continuous culture process is:

a way to keep population of bacteria in one specific stage of growth curve for long time

primary and secondary metabolites

primary : produced as soon as bacteria grow (ex: big turkey dinner)
secondary: produced after time of growth, usually takes place after stationary phase (ex: turkey soup, made w leftovers)

dimitri iwanowski worked on what

tobacco plants and filtered through Chamberland filter (filtrate=infectious), caused by "small bacteria"

who reffeered to agent as "filterable virus" and found the agent in viruses were not bacteria because they had different behaviours

martinus beijerinck

what did wendell stanley do

purified and crystalized tobacco mosaic virus

_____ were used for growing vaccines

eggs

what virus didn't grow in eggs

poliovirus

what virus needed iron lung

poliovirus

what kind of cell lines are useful for 2-5 generations

primary cell lines

how many generations are virus-sensitive in low passage cell lines

20-50

these obligatory intracellular parasites require living host cells to replicate

viruses

true or false: viruses contain DNA and RNA

false, they can only have 1 not both

within a virus, what surrounds nucleic acid

a protein coat

a host range is determined by

required specific attachment receptors on host cell that match virus receptors

how does an endospore core differ from a vegetative cell

-core contains dipicolinic acied
-stablizies DNA against heat denaturation

-reduces water availability

-makes calcium dipicolinate

-pH in core is 1 unit lower

-high levels of SASP's

what is a high energy form of oxygen

singlet oxygen

what is a carotenoid pigment

acts as a catalyst to break down singlet O2 to become less toxic

how do obligate aerobes grow

in areas of high O2 concentration (not at bottom of tube)

what are both aerobic and anaerobic but grow better when O2 is present

facultative anaerobes

obligate anaerobes grow in:

absence of O2, CANNOT TOLERATE O2

what type of anaerobe does oxygen not affect

aerotolerant anaerobes

micro aerophiles grow in:

low [O2]

what is a cardinal temp

min, max, and optimal

what temp is danger zone

15-52

acidophiles:

low pH

alkaliphiles:

high pH

a closed system that keeps things moving is called

continuous culture process

how were viruses put together

dimitri: tobacco, grind and filter through chamberland "small bacteria"
beijerinck: not bacteria, behaved differently "filterable virus"

wendell stanley won a nobel prize for what

purifying and crystalizing tobacco virus

what is an example of a helical virus

ebola

what is an example of an enveloped virus

influenza

how many types of hemagglutinin are there

18

how many types of neuraminidase are there

11

what is a capsid

protein coat surrounding nucleic acid

pros and cons of envelopes

pros
-hide from immune cells

-helps fuse w host


cons

-easily damaged

-sensitive to pH and disinfectants

-lose memb. and become non infectious

how do we name viruses

family-> genus->species

5 steps of viral replication LYTIC CYCLE

attachment: collide phage w bacteria
penetration: tail release into lysosome&inject into host

biosynthesis: early mRNA, DNA replication, late mRNA

maturation: assemble viral components

release: host=lysed and releases new progeny

how is lysogeny diff than lytic

-uses recombination to become a prophage
-many cell divisions

-can be lost and enter lytic cycle

-daughter cells become lysogenic

-occurs in temperate viruses

what is an eclipse period

when there is no infectious viruses present

what period follows the increased number of infectious virions until release from host

rise period

animal virus replication

attachment: receptors on surface of memb of host, receptors of virus are all over surface (diff ways to contact)
penetration: uncoated genome released from capsid, membrane fusion, endocytosis

biosynthesis: replication of DNA is easy, diff for +/- ds or ss RNA

maturation: late genes help assemble new copies

release: naked- lysis, envelopes- concurrently

dsRNA (rota) variation in biosynthesis

+ strand=mRNA for translation

+ssRNA (polio) biosynthesis variation

ss=mRNA, -RNA strand= +ssRNA copies

-ssRNA (rabies) biosynthesis variation

RNA polymerase transcribes +RNA from -RNA
+RNA used as mRNA to make proteins

retroviruses (HIV)

use reverse transcriptase, dsDNA makes provirus (irreversible)

influenza A

found in birds, makes hybrid virus, V1+V2=V3

what animal is used as a mixing vessel

pig

spanish flu is also known as

H1N1

what is an antigenic drift

mutation in virus RNA, why we need yearly flu shot

what do antiviral ion channel blockers do

prevent uncoating so replication doesn't happen

what do antiviral neuraminidase inhibitors do

prevent new viruses from being released from host

what is an example of a continuously infectious infection

HEP B

example of partial infectivity infection

adenovirus

what is a latent viral infection

when the virus stays in equilibrium and doesn't cause disease

what are 2 examples of a latent viral infection

-Herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2)
-Varicella-Zoster (chickenpox and shingles)

what are the 2 stages of viral reactivation

resumption and replication

a viroid only has_____ and no ______

ssRNA, protein

a prion is a _____ molecule

protein

what are the 4 types of CJD

-sporadic (mutation in Prnp)
-familial (inherited mutated gene)

-iatrogenic CJD (medical transfer of prions)

-new variant (BSE-contaminated beef)

difference between PrPc and PrPsc

c- helix>pleated sheets
sc-pleated sheets>helix

what is a mutation

change in base sequence (A,G,C,T)

_____ occurs when 1 or more bases are inserted or deleted in a DNA sequence

frame-shift mutation

dimer production is:

exposure to UV, damaged DNA removed, polymerase fills gap, ligase seals&joins old and new DNA

what 2 things are required for bacterial recombination

donor and recipient cell

3 forms of bacterial recomb.

transformation: picks up free DNA
conjugation: cell-cell transfer of genetic material

transduction: transfer chromosomal material by bacteriophage

what is griffiths experiment

S (capsule) and R (no cap)
Live S= kills rat

Live R= no effect on rat

Heated S strain= no effect on rat

Live R&heated S= kills rat

3 types of conjugation

F plasmid: F+ and F- connected by sex pilus, transfers plasma DNA
Hfr cell: plasmid knicked at oriT and merges into chromosome, transfers bacterial DNA and some plasmid DNA

F' plasmid: same as F, but carry chromosomal genes

what is generalized transduction

-when any portion of genome has a good likelihood of being transferred as any other part
-bacteria in lytic cycle gets a transducing particle

what is specialized transduction

-when specific regions are more likely than others to be transferred (only temperate bacteriophages)
-uses lysogeny

what microorganism is most resistant to control

prion

what microorganism is least resistant to control

enveloped virsuses

what is the best example of non-ionizing radiation

UV light (260nm is most effective wavelength)

disc diffusion test shows:

zones of inhibition (antibiotic sensitivity)

antibiotic assays determine _____

sensitivity of microorganisms to antibiotics

what % of particles can HEPA filters remove in 0.3um

99.97%

the TUBE with the lowest [antibiotic] that shows no visble growth is:

MIC- minimum inhibitory concentration

the lowest concentration sample w no growth on AGAR PLATE is:

MBC- minimum bactericidal concentration

what are the 5 modes of action of antibiotics

-inhibition of cell wall synthesis (penicillin- prevents NAG/NAM from linking)
-inhib. of protein synthesis (tetracyclin - 30S subunit, tRNA and mRNA attatchment & erythromycin - 50S subunit, translocation)

-injury of plasma memb (polymyxin B- attack phospholipids)

-inhib. of nucleic acid synthesis (quinolones- block replication)

-inhib. of essential metabolite synthesis (sulfonamides- mimic PABA)

4 mechanisms of antibiotic resistance

-bacteria destroy drug
-prevent drug from penetrating

-target site

-increase rapid pumps

true or false: antibiotics work on viruses

false

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