- recourse to war
- use of force
- War = formal declaration + structured military operation
- Use of force = no declaration + short of war actions
- Physical violence
art. 42 UN Charter: military violent actions/ military force/activity
- Military violence
- GA Resolution art.3
- bombing or blockade
Physical islation/surrouding/closing off of a port/harbour by hostile troops or ships to prevent the passage of goods and people
- art. 49
- act of violence against an enemy in offence or defence
No
Because it is not considered a use of force in the traditional sense (=physical violence)
Military and ideological strategy that treats the human mind as a battlefield, aiming to influence, disrupt or control how individuals and societies perceive reality
- IUS AD BELLUM
- HR law, environmental law
- IUS IN BELLO
- Lex specialis
- How actors exercise force (=who can be attacked, rules concerning weaponts, treatment of enemies, military targets
- Why force is used because it's still IUS AD BELLUM
A special law that applies as a way of exception
No, because IL is just a tool, it's thse that use it that can enter in a state of crisis
- 1) Hague Conventions, 2) Geneva Conventions
- Humanitarian Law
- Protect the enemy on the battlefield to mak war more human
- The technological revolution of the 1900 because of the evelopment of chemical weapons etc...
- Protect civilians
- No, civilians and their infrastructure can under no circumstance be attacked
- No, HR is in peacetime, the other in wartime
- Yes, beecause it's lex specialis
- Killing someone (a criminal) must be the last resort
- No, in war an enemy can be killed without justification
- Weapons
- Disarmament Law
- Body of rule that deals with destroying weapons that States already have and also prohibiting the use of new ones
- After the Wesphalian treaties
- Freedom of war (=sovereignty), that States coul wage without obligations to justify themselves
- Retaliation/reprisal
Retaliation/reprisal
- Covenant of the LoN
- In case of aggression of a MS or threat or danger of aggression the Council shall advise upon the means by which the MSs have to intervene in its protection
1) Political: refer the question to the Council that would adopt a resoluton giving instruction to the States involved
2) Judicial: going in front of the Permanet Court of Int. Justice
- States were still allowed to make war after 3 month following either the decision of te council or the court if a State is not complying with the resolution of the council or the judgement of the Court
- Self enforcementof cmpliance to the judgement or decision of the LoN
- No
- Prohibits the use of war to resolve disputes
- War is not longer a legitimate tool of foreign and international policy
1) Only MSs renounce to war as a means to resolve disputes
2) A treaty like this between allies is quite useless, it's useful only if it involves also enemies
3) Retaliatin is not renounced, it just need to be justified
4) The useo f the term "war" excludes all that are "short of war mesures" which are therefore still allowed
5) There is no definition of "war"
- The presence of a formal declaratin of war
- Use of force
- Yes
It reiterates the Kellog Briand pact but it was concluded among the western countries of European culture,so not Russia ecc... which had their own version or the pact, the St. Petersbourg Declaration
- No
- art. 2 and the expression "sovereign equality of all Members"
- Yes,it was created by a group of states of European tradition and was sold to other States as the best way to deal with matters of peace and security
- Enemies and "non-civilised" States
- Colonial approaach
- MSs must settle disputes X peaceful means established principle of IL
- Yes, the Manilla Declaration of 1982
- Many States were excluded from the negotiation (decolonised States) and wanted to contribute to to the affirmance of this principle
- Yes
The sources of IL are treaties, custom and PRACTICE of States. Considering that there is a systematic silence among States when it comes to codamning the violation of this principle, could this principle be derogated?
Yes, but not thrugh State practice alone and it's very improbable because it's Ius Congens (which can only be derogaed by a more recent Ius Cogens principle)
All MSs shall refrain in their int. relations from the threat or use of force Vs the territorial integrity or political independence of any state or in any other manner inconsistent with the purposes of the UN.
1) Only binds MSs, although it's true that nowadays is not really a problem because almost all States are in the UN therefore a customary law has emerged, which bounds non-MSs as well
2) Only binds States
3) It doesn not concern domestic violence
4) Not justa prohibition of use of force but also threat of it
- No
- No, but they are regulated by other legal frameworks
Generally yes, to the extent Palestine is a State, it is bound by the customary law (=if it's not considered a State then it's nt bound)
- No, unless they are controlled by a State
- ...their violene is still illegal under other legal frameworks (ex. int. criminal law)
- A theory created by the US to justify attacks to a terrorist org. hiding in the terrory of another State
- If the host state is not willing or able to stop terrorists in their own territory then the US are allowed to take matters in their own hands
- The host State
- Target killing
Generally yes, some have used the sme approach (Cnada, UK, Russia, Israel ecc...) and the others don't oppose it
Depends, according to China it's not a State so the rule is not applicable but according to Europe or the US it's a State so it applies
Yes, this means that the State is being considered a terrorist itself because in its sovereign functions it carries out terrorist activities
Taiwan is not considered a State by China but rather a Chinese sub-region and art.2.4 only applies to INTERNATIONAL relations beetween STATES
ICJ 1996 US-Nicaragua judgement and advisory opinion 1996on nuclear weapons: rush to nuclear weapons or regular ones is not a threat of ue of force and therefore a violation of 2.4 unless there is a mental element, a policy of aggression
No, it's defensive so it lacks an acggressive policy which is the mental requirement for rush to armaments to represent a violation of art. 2.4
- Old judgement UK VS Albania in Corfu related to the passage of military sips in international straits : it's not a violation unless there is the mental element of an aggressive policy (ex. weapons need to pass through with the weapons pointed at the deck, if they are aimed at the coast raady to shoot it's a violation)
- 1) US ships close to Brasilian coasts, 2) Russian submarines in Mediterranean Sea, 3) US military ships close to Taiwan
- Yes
- No, there wasn't a clear aggressive intent
Yes
- There isn't a consensus, States usually committing these attacks say that it isn't (ex. Russia, Usa, Canada, Israel, those vulnerable to them say they are
- Generally speaking they are considered an attack if they have real life consequences (ex. opening a dam, shutting down the security system ofa nuclear plant)
- Enter the stock exchange, enter the website of the Pentagon and take all info
- No
- No
The aim is to not make the victim counterattack as itwould be illegal
Principle of non interference of domestic affairs
- They still amount to a violtion of art.2.4 if they have severe governamental consequences or if they prevent the victim form performing its functions
- Attack of hospital databases making them inaccessible
-Theey havee a very isolating opinion: if the cyber attack causes severe impairement then it's a violation of art.2.4 BUT it is violation of 2.4 also if there are grave economic consequences
Yes
No
No
It was not conceived for attacks form non-State actors
No
- 1) territorial integrity, 2) political independence, 3) purpose of UN
- The people
War by proxy
An armed conflict where States support third parties to fight (combatants, militias, rebels or other states) on their behalf instead of directly ingaging eachother.
Yes if the State has effective control over the agents
Yes
Territory and purpose of the UN
US and Barein
- ... sufficiently grave
- oganised and intentional
- 186 Nicaragua Vs US ICJ decision
Ships are considered to be a floating territory of the State so attacking the ship is like violating the State's flag (= a violation of 2.4 for territorial integrity) BUT in this case the other State cannot answer in self defence because there wasn't an intention to attack the other State so the action is considered not sufficiently grave.
No, it's something that pre-exists the UN so it's right that cannot be eliminated by it
- Yes
- The response must: 1) follow the attack, 2) be necessary, 3) be immediate, 4) be proportionate
- The State can respond NOT to attack the enemy, but to prevent future threats. So if one responds when there is an agreement this is not lawful self defence because there is no threat anymore
- In practice, States have waited many months before responding, arguing that they were still in danger
- Nuclear bombs
- Yes, if theey are necessary foor the survival of the State. It's a "last resort" option
Yes, in anticipated self defence as long as the foreign attack is already in progress
No because reversibility is not possible in military terms, the damage that war causes cannot be undone
- It's a doctrine allowing military action to prevent an imminent attack instead of waiting for a direct hit
- You must have information that a country has weapons of mass destruction that will be used against you
- Not for now, countries like Israel and the US use it though
No, it has noo legal basis in IL
No, but they must notify it of what they are going to do and why
The exercise of the SC's functions (Chapter VI-VII). States have individual right to self defence so long that it doesn't compromise SC's interventions to restore peace and security
It's an inherent right recognised under art. 51 UN Charter allowing allied states to assist a parter that is victim of an unlawful armed attack
Geopolitical
- No, there is a difference between direct and indirect victims
- 1986 judgement US-Nicaragua reasoned in terms that the direct victim has discretionality in choosing when to respond so the indirect victim is not allowed to autonomously trigger self defense unless there is consent of the direct victim.
No, the State needs first to be victim of a violation of art. 2.4 of the UN Charter inorder to lawfully invoke collective self defence. Also, States give assistance but they in accordance with their legal systems so they don't necessarily have to give weapons or access to military bases, they do what they think is appropriate.
- Yes
- After an armed attack, proportionate, necessary, immediate and communicated to the SC
1) Self defence
2) Consent of the victim
3) Protection of own nationals
4) Protection of foreigncivilians from their own government
5) Responsibility to protect
- Consent needs to be present and actual
- ... offers the framework of lawfulness and binds the State
- 1) Ambassadors, 2) Head of gov., 3) Ministers of foreign affairs, 4) Head of State.
- The idea is that of a rescue operation
- As part of a State's territory
- Some think it's an alternative way to exercise self defence so accroding to them all requirements and rule of self defence apply to this too (ex. necessity, proportionality ecc...)
- It can be used as a justification encourage a regime change
- Israeli operation in Uganda, Nazi Germany, Russia in Donbas
- In order to justify its attacks in Donbas Russians claimed that Russians in the area were victims of genocide. The ICJ still didn't find this ction legitimate because there re different ways to intervene to stop a genocide, war and use of force are not alternatives
- It's a relevant case of a State trying to use the "use of force to defend own nationals aborad" justtification for military attacks
No
- People must be victims of severe HR violations
- What do we mean with "severe HR violation"?
- No
- They justified it saying that they acted in protection of HR (which they assumed Nicaragua was systematically violating)
- No, the ICJ did not recognise a right to use force aginst another state because they are accused of violating HR, it didn't accept i as a legal basis for force = Paragraph 267-268= ICJ said that the use of force is not a legitimate HR enforcement mechanism under IL
No, military interventions in Siria by US, F., UK---> in the entire world only 2 States said that the action was perfectly legal so one of the State attacking said that their own actions were not legal (it was the US, it was an ethically groudned intervention but not necessarily lawful)
Yes, but not through force
"Responsibility to protect" is the principle that states must protect populations from mass atrocity crimes, and if they fail, the international community has a responsibility—through lawful UN processes—to respond.
- No, States are not allowed to unilaterally act to protect other pop. using force the only actor that can do this is the SC in accordance with Chapter 7
- ... even then, to stop crimes against humanity not just to protect HR
- Rome Statute of the ICC
- They are systematic (crimes that are not limited in time and follow is a political pattern) OR widespread (huge number of cases). Intervention needs authorization of the SC, if a State uses force before it then it's a violation of IL
- Enslavement, deportantion, murder, extermination
- No, the Charter only mentions preliminary authorisation
- Post authrisation is a validation of something that has already been done, it's a ratification not an authorisation
There are no answers yet.
1) States have delegated the UN to maintain peace but if it's a delegation it means that the State has the original power that has then been given to the UN-->if the SC is not fulfilling its functions and duties (= if the SC votes a resolution and it is not adopted then it's ok, but f the SC is unable to adopt any resolution because one State keeps systematically imposing a veto then the SC is structurally unable to function and States can act in substitution regime) to then the power goes back to the States that are allowed to intervene in regime of substitution to the UN which is very dangerous.
2) The other option is that we stick to the UN system and the competence must be transferred to the GA.
- No, it's less developed for non-international ones
- Because IL was initially aimed at limiting States in international conflicts
- Rebel
Convention respecting the rights and duties of neutral States
It enters the conflict, becomes an enemy and can be attack
1) Each party of the conflict is not allowed to attack the territory of a neutral State, 2) if a state declares that it is a neutral power but it is attacked it has the right to self defence BUT it's still neutral= it's enforcing its neutrality
