777 Tech Quiz
what is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude?
8,400ft
without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot MUST be disengaged below...?
200ft AGL
what is the minimum glideslope angle for an automatic landing?
2.5 degrees
prior to takeoff, what is the maximum allowable difference between the captains (or first offices) altimeter and the field elevation?
75ft
what is the maximum crosswind limit for an automatic landing?
25kts
what is the maximum operating altitude?
43,100ft
for which flap settings can automatic landings be made with one engine inoperative?
20 and 30
what is the minimum auto pilot engagement height after takeoff?
200ft AGL
what is the maximum fuel temperature?
+49C
what is the maximum allowable tailwind for an automatic landing?
15kts
which type of message is normally displayed on the lower MFD?
Status
onto which display screen(s) can ALL synoptics be selected?
Any selected MFD
with an inboard display selector selected to the EICAS position, what DSP selections are available to that screen?
ENG, FUEL an AIR
if page 1 of EICAS alerts is being displayed, how would you view the next page?
Press the CANC/RCL switch
when you press the master caution reset switch, what is cancelled?
master caution lights only
which FIRE indications are inhibited during a portion of the takeoff?
Bell and master warning lights
how can warning messages be cleared from the EICAS display?
by correcting the fault which caused the warning
what is the significance of an advisory message being at the top of its list?
It is the most recent
which of the following EICAS alerts has priority in the queue of checklists?
Warning
what automatically resets the electronic normal checklist?
Go around, airborne, TOGA selected, gear not up
if a checklist, or an item, is overridden, to which colour will it change?
cyan
how are unannunciated checklists accessed?
CHKL switch, non-normal menu selection
where will the PFD move to if an in board display unit fails?
Automatically moves to the inboard display unit, regardless of the position of the inboard display selector
how many cursors can be in use at the same time?
two, on different displays on different screens
if an EFIS control panel fails, how can the displays be controlled? Through The…?
Related CDU menu
when an inboard display selector is in the PFD position, can any other display be shown?
No, they are all inhibited
where is the current MACH displayed on the PFD airspeed indication?
Bottom
in what form is the selected altitude displayed on the PFD altitude indication?
Bug against scale and in digits
when will the vertical speed be shown digitally on the VSI?
More than 400 FPM
which of these conditions will cause the pitch limit indicator to be displayed?
Slow speeds with flaps up
above what bank angle do the Bank pointer and slip/skid indicator turn Amber?
35 degrees
what does "TIME TO ALIGN/XXXX" on the NDs indicate?
Time remaining for the ADIRU to align
how would you remove accumulated ADIRU errors with the ADIRU switch?
Switch it OFF for 30 seconds, then ON
following the EICAS advisory message 'NAV AIR DATA SYS', what information is being displayed to you?
The left PFD displays ADIRU air data; the right PFD displays SAARU air data
what function is NOT available on ROUTE page 2 only when flying a SID or STAR?
OFFSET
on which CDU page are waypoint altitude constraints entered?
LEGS
what entry is required in the scratch pad to create a new waypoint situated 20 miles along the 280° radial from Brecon (BCN)?
BCN280/20
how can the ILS receivers be tuned for a PVD takeoff?
Manually on the NAV RAD pages
during cruise, which key(s) would you press to display the DESCENT page?
VNAV and NEXT PAGE
you are more than halfway to your destination; which page will be displayed when you press the INIT REF key?
APPROACH REF
which CDU page can be used to enable the off path descent?
ACT ECON DES
on a normal takeoff, what will be the autothrottle mode after 80kts?
HOLD
if armed, what height will VNAV engage during takeoff?
400ft
during a VNAV climb, the aircraft levels off at an intermediate altitude that has been selected on the MCP. What will the FMA pitch mode annunciation be?
VNAV ALT
when will the VNAV mode disengage?
If FLCH is selected
if the auto pilot is in V/S mode, what is the auto throttle FMA annunciation?
SPD
what does the V/S window display on V/S engagement?
Current V/S
what is the auto throttle FMA annunciation during a VNAV SPD climb?
THR REF
when is the go around function of TO/GA mode armed?
On G/S capture
during a twin engine autoland, when does the initial runway alignment manoeuvre begin?
500 RA
which control surfaces are locked out at high speed?
the ailerons and spoilers 5 and 10
which flap settings can be used for takeoff?
5, 15 and 20
in which flight control mode do you have flight envelope protection?
Normal
in which flight control mode does rudder manual trim cancel switch work?
In both normal and secondary
what does the EICAS message STAB GREENBAND indicate?
The nose gear pressure switch disagrees with the FMCG CG
how will the flaps be affected if the centre hydraulic system fails?
The secondary mode is selected automatically
in normal mode, up to what speed is the wheel to Rudder cross tie operative?
210kts
in which modes is Bank angle protection available?
Normal mode only
in which flap positions is flap load relief armed?
15 to 30 inclusive
which surfaces move when extending the flaps using the alternate mode?
Slats and flaps simultaneously
in primary mode, what happens if the aircraft approaches a stall with flaps 5 selected?
The slats automatically extend from the mid range (sealed) to the down (gapped) position
how can an EGT exceedence be recalled?
By pressing the CNL/RCL button on the display select panel
following an in-flight engine shutdown, where is the in-flight start envelope displayed?
On the EICAS display
when will auto relight operate?
When rapid N2 deceleration is sensed
following an engine start, what does the EICAS caution message ENG STARTER CUTOUT L indicate?
The start valve is open when commanded closed
why are the thrust levers moved to the mid position before selecting alternate mode on the EEC? To prevent…?
Thrust over boost
during a normal auto start, placing the fuel control switch to RUN will do what?
It opens the fuel spar valve and arms the engine fuel valve and the igniters
how is approach idle selected?
Automatically with flaps selection of 25 or more
if the engine START/IGNITION control switch is at CON, when will the igniter operate?
Continuously, if the fuel control switch is at RUN
during fuel jettison, where is the jettison time displayed?
Fuel synoptic
where is the fuel tank temperature indicated?
The EICAS and fuel synoptic
during flight, what do the fuel totaliser and calculated quantities represent on FMC progress page 2?
Current fuel quantity in the tanks, and the FMC calculated fuel remaining
when will the expanded fuel indications automatically appear?
With one or both crossfeed valves open
during which phase of flight can fuel balancing be carried out?
In any phase of flight
during pushback, on APU power before engine start, with all fuel pumps ON, you noticed the centre tank R pump PRESS light is illuminated. What action is required?
None, this is normal
why would the fuel balance pointer flash when carrying out fuel balancing?
The fuel balancing is going in the wrong direction
how is fuel balancing completion indicated?
FUEL BALANCED replaces FUEL QTY on the expanded fuel quantity display, and flashes for five seconds
an APU can be used in flight for which of the following?
Pneumatics up to 22,000 feet, and electrics up to the aircraft Max certified altitude
which tank provides fuel for the APU when the fuel pumps are off?
Main tank left
in flight, the APU has started automatically. How would you shut the APU down?
By positioning the APU selector to ON then OFF
which of the following conditions is required to start the APU?
The battery switch must be ON
when is the APU in attended mode?
When an engine is starting or running, or when the aircraft is in flight
after first engine start, the APU oil temperature rises above a certain limit. Which EICAS alert will be displayed?
APU LIMIT caution
how are the centre hydraulic system primary pumps driven?
electrically only
how is the hydraulic normal fluid level indicated?
1.00
when will a hydraulic pump FAULT light illuminate?
Associated pump selected OFF
with the C1 demand pump switch at ON, when will the pump run?
Any time the pneumatic manifold is pressurised
what type of hydraulic pumps are used in the left hydraulic system?
Engine driven and an electric demand pump
RTO is selected on the auto brake system. What will happen if the takeoff is rejected at 70kts?
Nothing
Alternate gear extension is initiated…
Electro-hydraulically
which braking systems are fitted with antiskid protection?
Normal, alternate/reserve and accumulator braking
where are auto brakes selections made?
Buy a switch on the centre forward panel
which hydraulic systems pressurise the brake accumulator?
right
when does heating of the pitot probes commence?
After the first engine is started
when are the total air temperature sensors heated?
When the aircraft is in flight
for how long is automatic wing anti-ice operation inhibited after takeoff with takeoff power set?
10 minutes
when the wing anti-ice is selected to ON, the wing anti-ice valves are signalled to open immediately when;
In the air and the TAT is below 10°C
when icing is no longer detected by the automatic detection system, how is wing anti-ice turned off?
Automatically
what is the primary power source for the first offices flight instrument bus?
C2 TRU
What is the primary source of power for the flight control buses?
The PMGs
if both transfer buses become unpowered, what initially supplies power to the DC system?
The main battery
what is the in-flight priority for powering the main AC buses?
Respective ID, APU and then the opposite IDG
in-flight, what happens to the right transfer bus if the right IDG fails?
A back up generator connect to the flight transfer bus
when will an IDG automatically disconnect?
When it is overheating
in-flight, what Powers the main and APU battery chargers?
Ground service Bus
if a single IDG is powering both buses, what will occur if the primary EXT power switch is pressed with the primary EXT power available?
Primary power will connect to both buses
how will an aircraft that doesn't have a transponder be displayed on TCAS?
It will not be detected or displayed on TCAS
how is a resolution advisory (RA) displayed?
Red square on ND
what does an upward pointing arrow on the traffic data tag mean?
The traffic is climbing at more than 500 FPM
where is the control panel for the TCAS transponder?
At the aft end of the aisle stand
which VHF radios can be configured for data communications?
VHF Centre and right
how would you display DATA in the VHF C standby window?
By selecting a frequency higher or lower than the allowable VHF range
when would the low pressure section of an engine supply the bleed air?
When an engine is operating at high-power
during normal flight, where can the L and R duct pressures be displayed?
Air system synoptic
if the right trim air system is off, what temperature will the cabin temperature controllers try to achieve in all zones?
The average target temperature
where are the indications of cabin zone temperatures?
On the air synoptic
which display would tell you that a pack is in standby cooling mode?
AIR
how is the flight deck temperature controlled with the selector at MAN?
By manual control of the flight deck trim air valve for air mixing
you have selected an outflow valve to manual; where does its position nformation appear?
On the lower part of the EICAS display
with the pressurisation system in AUTO, where does it obtain the information to calculate the cabin pressurisation schedule?
From the ADIRU and the FMCs
how is the landing altitude selected manually?
by pulling out, and then rotating, the selector on the pressurisation panel
when will the cabin rate of climb become a function of the aircraft climb rate?
When the maximum differential pressure is reached during climb
following an engine fire, what is the first recall item?
Select the auto throttle arm switch to OFF
what is the first action of the APU fire procedure?
Press the ECL switch
if both engine nacelle fire and overheat detector loops have failed, what detection is available?
None
an engine fire switch automatically unlocked for a fire warning; when else does it unlock automatically?
When the fuel control switch is in cut off
when does the APU fire switch unlock automatically?
For an APU fire warning
for CAT3B operations with a decision height, what must be visible?
One centre line light
when is a runway considered contaminated?
When more than 25% is covered by greater than 3mm of standing water
what colour are the taxiway lights from the runway to the edge of the localiser sensitive area?
Green and Amber
which of these calculations represents accelerate stop distance available (ASDA)?
TORA + STOPWAY
which of these calculations represents takeoff run available (TORA)?
ASDA - STOPWAY
Vmbe Is the maximum speed on the ground from which a stop can be made within the energy capabilities of the wheel brakes. What is the constraint on V1 relative to Vmbe?
V1 must never exceed Vmbe
VMCG is the minimum Speed at which the takeoff can be continued safely in the event of the failure of the critical engine. What is the constraint on V1 relative to VMCG?
V1 must never be less than VMCG
what is the TOPL weight?
The weight limit at takeoff based solely on aircraft performance parameters
what is the regulated takeoff weight (RTOW)?
The lower of the maximum authorised takeoff weight (MTOW) and TOPL weight
what does TIF stand for on the flight plan?
Total in flight
when can contingency fuel be used?
Any time after the commencement of the flight
what is the reserve fuel figure based on?
30 minutes holding, clean, 1500 feet above the alternate
what will happen to the APU in-flight if both AC transfer buses lose power?
The APU will start automatically, regardless of the APU switch position
in-flight, what is the source of power to the ground service bus, and thus the battery chargers?
R AC main bus
in-flight, what will occur if both AC transfer buses lose power?
The RAT will deploy and the APU will start
suction feed is available from…
Main tanks only
when a fuel tank imbalance is first detected, how is it indicated?
By an EICAS FUEL IMBALANCE message
where can the fuel flow rate to each engine be seen?
On the secondary engine display
what information is given by the engine vibration indications on the secondary engine display?
The highest vibration of N1 or N2 if it is known
to select the secondary engine display manually, which button on the DSP is used?
ENG
with the fuel control switch at RUN, what does the EEC do during an auto start?
It controls the opening of the engine fuel valve
what does the red line on the N1 parameter gauge indicate?
Maximum rotar speed limit
where is the procedure for an on ground manual engine start found?
FCOM Vol 1 supplimentary procedures
when are the flap manoeuvering speeds displayed on the PFD air speed indication?
Below 20,000 feet
under which condition will the pitch limit indication be displayed?
With flaps away from UP
what does the L or R in the bottom right-hand corner of the PFD indicate?
that rhe left or right EFIS control panel is the barometric setting reference for the auto pilot or flight director
An ADF operates on a frequency of 1250.4. What do you type in the FMS-CDU scratchpad to tune it for the BFO reception?
1250.4B
from, where are the ILS receivers manually tuned?
FMS CDUs via NAV RAD
in HDG SEL mode, with the Bank limit sector at AUTO, what is the limit?
It is dependent on TAS
with VNAV engaged and the controlling command speed, what will the IAS/MACH window display?
Blank
during climb with the AFDS pitch mode in V/S, what will happen to airspeed if the engines are producing full power but the selected V/S is higher than the Current V/S?
Airspeed will decrease
The PFD pitch mode will annunciate VNAV ALT when the aircraft is being held by which of the following?
MCP window altitude
when will the VNAV mode disengage?
If FLCH is selected
after takeoff, when will THR REF engage as the auto throttle mode?
When VNAV engages
during a VNAV climb, which has priority for altitude capture?
The ALT window or FMC target which ever is reached first
what is the maximum localiser intercept angle?
120°
when is the left engine driven pump hydraulic supply shut off?
If the left engine fire switch is pulled
which of the following systems can be powered from the RAT?
Centre system flight controls only
when will main gear steering automatically operate?
When nose wheel steering exceeds 13°
which of the following will disarm autobrake after landing?
A normal anti-skid system fault
what happens in the flight control direct mode?
The ACEs Drive the PCUs directly
if the speed brakes are extended below 800 feet RA which EICAS message is displayed
SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED caution
which of the following statements is correct?
Alternate pitch trim commands have priority over wheel pitch trim commands in all flight control modes
what FMC parameters are used to calculate stabiliser greenband?
CG, gross weight and takeoff thrust
during normal operation, what are the positions of the pneumatic system isolation valves?
Centre closed, L and R open
what determines the pack outlet temperature?
The zone requiring the coolest air
if a pack is in standby cooling mode, what will happen if the aircraft is in low altitude, high ambient temperature conditions?
The pack will shut down
what cabin master reference temperature range is available when using the cabin temperature control on the air-conditioning?
18°C to 29°C
how many outflow valves are fitted to the aircraft?
Two, one forward and one aft in the fuselage
after touchdown, to where does the pressurisation system automatically position the outflow valves?
Both fully open
if outflow valve position is not available on EICAS during manual control, how long must the respective OUTFLOW VALVE MANUAL switch be held to move the value from full open to full closed?
30 seconds
following the manual selection of the landing altitude, where is this selection displayed?
EICAS display
what effect would a failure of both lavatory/galley vent fans have on the aft/bulk cargo heating system?
Aft/bulk cargo heating would be no longer available
in equipment cooling override mode, what provides reverse airflow?
Aircraft differential pressure
with AUTO selected, what happens if one wing anti-ice valve fails closed, when ice detected?
The system will close the other valve to prevent asymmetric icing
what is the maximum takeoff weight for the IGW version aircraft?
267,619 kg
how is the N1 RPM operating limit displayed on EICAS?
A red line
what differential pressure will the pressure relief valves operate?
9.1 psi
what is represented by the Amber line on the N1 gauge?
Maximum thrust
what is the maximum allowable crosswind speed for a category 2 or 3 automatic landing in the USA?
15 kts
for application of the MEL, how is dispatch of the flight defined?
When the aircraft 1st moves under its own power
when would the ENG FAIL time critical warning display?
65 kts to slightly below V1
in-flight, how many degrees above the fuel freezing point must the tank temperature be?
3°C
what is VMO up to 30,000 feet?
330 kts
what is the maximum autopilot disengage height on status B runway?
100 feet RA
after when may contingency fuel first be used?
Pushback engine or engine start
what is the minimum amount of fuel required to be remaining in tanks after landing?
Reserve fuel
at the end of where, our aeroplanes classified in performance group A required to achieve V2 and a screen height of 35 feet on a dry runway?
TODA
what is the regulated takeoff weight (RTOW)?
Lower of the maximum authorised takeoff weight and the takeoff performance limit weight
The CARD system has failed to give any performance data. What is your next action?
Contact flight technical dispatch via SATCOM
if you were carrying out a PACKS OFF takeoff, which of the following performance corrections would you enter?
25 – air-conditioning off
in normal circumstances which V1, VR and V2 figures would you enter on the FMC TAKEOFF REF page?
Use the ones given by CARD
anti-icing will be required just after takeoff. What would you enter in the performance request?
Select the anti-ice check box
what is the minimum duct pressure required to perform an engine ground pneumatic start?
25 psi (less 1 psi per 1000 feet of pressure altitude)
for a final load sheet to be in compliance, what is the limitation on MACTOW?
+/- 2%
which bus must be powered for cargo loading to take place?
The ground handling Bus
what will be the indication against a hydraulic quantity of 0.72 on the STATUS page if the system need a topping up?
RF (White)
where would you find the rules for the loading of live animals?
Load and balance manual
auto start fails to start an engine; what is your immediate action?
Put the fuel control switch to CUTOFF
what happens if an APU fire is detected during the initial cockpit preparation?
The APU shutdown, and automatically fires the extinguisher
what happens when the fuel jettison arm switch is pressed?
The TO REMAIN quantity replaces the fuel temperature on the EICAS display
after the first engine has started normally, there is an APU fire: what then happens?
The APU shutdown automatically: you must pull the fire switch
With slats and flaps retracted, moving the alternate flaps selector to EXT results in...
Slat and flap movement simultaneously
The aircraft requires a ground cross bleed start. Where can the procedure be found?
FCOM Vol 1 - Supplementary procedures
following a cabin depressurisation, what is the first item on the checklist?
Don the oxygen mask
what happens if the AFT cargo fire arm switch is pushed?
The lower recirculation fans are turned off
for CAT2 operations, how many elements of the approach light system must be identified and kept in view
Three including a lateral element
CAT2 and 3 holding points are identified by...
Alternately flashing pairs of yellow lights
what visual reference is required for CAT3B operations with no decision height?
None
what are the instruments that measure runway visual range called?
Transmissometers
what is the maximum crosswind for a takeoff requiring PVD for visibility?
15 kts
on a 777 approach in CAT2 weather the RVR deteriorates after 1000 feet but before DH. What should you do?
Continue the approach to the DH
what is the lowest weather minimum permitted with a NO LAND 3 message and LAND 2 annunciated?
CAT3A
on which display units are the NDs normally displayed?
Inboard
which type of display is normally shown on the upper centre screen?
EICAS
which airports are shown on the ND in Plan mode?
The four alternates, but no others
what FIRE indications are inhibited during a portion of takeoff?
Bell and master warning lights
how will the EXIT HOLD facility direct the aircraft to leave the hold?
Via the inbound course to the holding fix point
how would you remove deletable data from line 3 right (3R)?
Press the DELETE key and line select key 3R
which FMC page would you use to configure the aircraft for QFE operations?
Approach REF
if during the cruise, you wish to display the CRZ page, which key would you press?
VNAV
what is displayed on the CDU if a waypoint identifier which has more than one geographical location in the database is entered?
the SELECT DESIRE WPT page
On which page could you compare the fuel use by the two engines?
Progress page 2
which key is pressed to extinguish the MSG light on a CDU?
The CLR key
where are time critical warnings displayed?
On the PFD
how can you differentiate between caution and advisory messages?
Advisories have no associated aural
an EICAS caution message is at the top of the list of caution/advisory messages.
What does this mean?
It is the most recent message
when will the RAT automatically deploy?
If both AC transfer buses lose power in flight
what electrical supply is required to feed the entire aeroplane AC electrical load without low shedding?
Primary EXT power with APU power
if both transfer buses are lost, what is the first backup source to power the captains flight instrument bus?
The battery
The main battery provides standby power to the following:
The hot battery Bus, the battery Bus, Captains flight instrument Bus, standby inverter
when will a backup generator power one or both transfer buses?
When power to one or both AC main buses has lost
how is the fuel freeze temperature entered?
Through the FMS CDU
when is each centre tank pump switch PRESS light inhibited?
When the switch is selected to OFF
what is normally used for the thrust setting parameter on GE90 powered aircraft?
N1
during climb with the EEC in normal mode, what will happen if the thrust levers are manually positioned forward?
The engines will produce maximum rated thrust
why is it necessary to monitor engine oil pressure during an auto start?
Because the auto start system will not abort the start for oil parameter anomalies
if the source of engine vibration is unknown, the secondary engine display will show what indication?
BB
how is APPROACH idle selected
Automatically with flaps selection of 25° or more
what indications provide warning of a stuck on VHF/HF transmitter?
An EICAS RADIO TRANSMIT message
when may the maximum manoeuvering speed indication be displayed on the PFD?
When operating at high altitude at relatively high gross weights
in which form is vertical speed displayed on the PFD?
Both analogue, and digital when greater than 400 feet/minute
what form does the slip indicator take?
Box against a pointer
with the air data/attitude sources switches in the ALTN position…
Captains air data is from the right pitot/static system through the SAARU
what is the maximum range at which weather radar turbulence returns can be displayed?
40 nm
what comprises the ATC transponder system?
Two transponders controlled by a single panel
what does the PFD auto throttle annunciation display when the TO/GA switches is pressed once to carry out to go around?
THR
during climb with no altitude constraints, what happens if the altitude selector on the MCP is pushed with the altitude window set above the FMC cruise altitude?
The FMC cruise altitude is changed to the altitude in the window altitude
how can VNAV be disengaged?
By capturing the glideslope after APP has been selected
when is the go round function of TO/GA mode armed?
When the flaps are not retracted
what is the lowest altitude at which you can disengage the approach mode by pressing the APP switch a second time?
1500 feet RA
in which mode will the auto throttle engage when the TO/GA switch is pushed for takeoff?
THR REF
what does the PFD auto throttle annunciation display during a FLCH climb?
THR
when using the DESCEND NOW feature beyond top of descent, what will be the initial auto throttle mode?
THR
in-flight, what happens if the centre hydraulic system quantity is sensed to be low?
Reverse brakes are isolated from the centre system and remain operable
when will the RAT deploy automatically?
If both AC transfer buses are unpowered
what effect does the landing gear lever have an alternate gear extension?
It may be in any position
when steering the aircraft using rudderpedals only at what point will main gear steering activate?
Main gear steering will not operate when using rudderpedals only
what happens when the flight controls are operating in the secondary mode?
The auto pilot is not available
with the aircraft in landing configuration and SLATS PRIMARY FAIL being the only message displayed which of the following is available?
both flap and slat load relief
The alternate pitch trim levers will, if operated, do which of the following following?
Move the stabiliser via control cables and the stab trim control module
where are the aileron trim indicators?
Control wheel/column
how can thrust asymmetry compensation (TAC) be disconnected?
By the switch on the overhead panel
during extension, in which modes do slat movements proceeded flap movements?
Primary and secondary only
prior to the first engine start, how should the engine bleed switches be configured?
Both ON
when will the pack shutdown if operating in standby cooling mode?
Low altitude with high temperature
where is the temperature level for each individual zone set?
At the cabin management panel
when is bleed air supplied by the high-pressure section of the engine?
Descent and other low power setting operations
where does the landing altitude barometric pressure correction come from?
The captains altimeter setting
in automatic mode, where is the landing altitude for the pressurisation system taken from?
The FMC
what indications on the EICAS display show that an outflow valve is under manual control?
an M appears at the needle base on the display
how is heating supplied for the forward cargo compartment?
From the forward equipment ventilation system
how is the bulk cargo compartment heated?
Independent bleed air system
when is automatic ice detection inhibited?
On the ground
where is the wing anti-ice annunciation displayed?
Below the EICAS N1 indication
what does the engine fire extinguisher system consist of?
Two extinguisher bottles, which can be discharged into either engine
what does the wheel well fire detection system consist of?
dual detector loops in main gear wells only
what action would you take if the caption OFFSCALE appeared on the ND?
Increase the ND range on the EFIS control panel
which category or categories of TCAS traffic will generate voice aural alerts?
RA and TA only
what is the maximum landing tailwind component for a slippery runway?
5 kt
in-flight, what would you suspect if the fuel temperature display turned Amber?
The temperature is approaching the freeze temperature entered on the FMS CDU
what is the maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing for a dry runway?
40 kts
what is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude?
8400 feet pressure altitude
what is the maximum allowable crosswind for CAT2 and CAT3 autoland operations?
25 kts
what limit protection is retained when the EEC operates in the hard alternate mode?
N1 and N2 overspeed
what must be a annunciated to carry out a cat 3A open - (DH below 100 feet but not less than 50 feet) automatic approach and landing?
LAND 2 OR LAND 3
in primary mode, what is the complete flap setting range that the load relief facility is operative?
15 to 30
during Taxi for takeoff a system malfunction occurs. What would be your considerations regarding the MEL?
Consult the MEL after completing the QRH to see if relief is available for continued operation with the fault
what is MMO above 30,000 feet to the aircraft ceiling?
0.87
what is the minimum height for engagement of the auto pilot after takeoff?
200 feet
what is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?
15 kts
from when is trip fuel (TIF) calculated?
Start of the takeoff roll
what is the reserve fuel figure based upon?
30 minutes holding, clean, 1500 feet above the alternate
what is the maximum value of TODA equal to?
1.5 x TORA
what is the length of an airfield CLEARWAY equal to?
TODA - ASDA
due to significant windshear, a full power takeoff is required. Which of the following fields must be filled in on the CARD performance request?
Performance correction code 56 and EST TOW
you have received a CARD data link error PERF CORRS after uplinking a performance data request. What would be the reason?
The requested performance corrections are not available
anti-icing will be required in the climb out. What would you enter in the performance request?
tick the anti ice box
The CARD system has not responded to a request. What would you do first?
Use SATCOM to contact flight technical dispatch at LHR
what is the basic index of G-VIIA?
784.0
what items comprise the actual zero fuel weight?
Total traffic load plus dry operating weight
what action is required if the letters RF are showing next to a hydraulic system quantity on the status page?
Maintenance action to add hydraulic fluid to the associated system
what action would you take with the cargo temperature selectors if live animals were to be carried in the bulk cargo?
aft low, bulk high
which bus can be powered on the ground only?
Ground handling Bus
what will be the indication against a low (below 0.4) hydraulic quantity on the STATUS page?
LO (Amber)
where is the APU ground control fire protection panel located?
At the nose wheel
what are the memory items in response to the warning STABILIZER?
Stabiliser cutout switches to CUTOUT and do not exceed current airspeed
after completing an emergency descent due to excessive cabin altitude, how is the boom microphone reselected?
Close the left oxygen panel door, then push and release the reset/test switch
for an in-flight cross bleed engine start, where is the recommended procedure found?
ECL, non-normal engines section
with the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminated, what braking is available for landing?
Accumulator only
where is the fuel jettison procedure located?
ECL, unannunciated and fuel sections (in QRH)
during a normal flaps 5 (from 1) extension, the flap indicator turns Amber. What does this indicate?
The flap drive mechanism has failed
what is the first action to be taken if airspeed is deemed to be unreliable?
Check the pitch attitude and thrust for the phase of flight
In-flight, after two extinguishers discharge in the forward cargo compartment, when are the remaining bottles discharged?
All remaining bottles automatically after a time delay
where can the RVR requirements for a PVD assisted takeoff be found?
CARD or relevant performance manual page
for CAT3B operations, a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height unless he has which of the following insight?
Centre line light
what colour are taxiway stop bar lights?
Red
what is the decision reference for CAT2 and CAT3 operations?
Radio altitude
for a reported RVR of 75 m and a centreline light spacing of 15 m what is the minimum number of centreline lights you would be able to see?
4
Visual reference is lost below the decision height on a 777 CAT3A approach. What should you do?
Go around
at 1500 RA on an automatic approach, LAND 2 is annunciated.
What visual reference would you need at decision height?
Three consecutive lights without a lateral element
you are landing a 777 in CAT 3 weather on a category L runway. After touchdown, should you disengage the auto pilot?
Yes, as rollout guidance is not assured
The ND is in map mode, with Airports de selected. Which airports are displayed?
The one nominated alternate airport
which display units are normally controlled by the display select panel?
The inboards and lower centre
what happens to primary engine indications if the upper display unit fails?
They appear on the lower screen
on the PFD, how will a vertical speed of 500 feet/min up be shown?
Needle pointing upwards halfway to the 'I' mark and 500 above the VS display
when are the master caution lights and beeper inhibited?
When both fuel control switches are at CUTOFF and the aircraft is on the ground
how is the caution beeper silenced?
Automatically after four beeps
your PFD is displaying an amber LDG ALT flag. When will this be removed?
When the route in the FMC is activated
what is the indication of a SELCAL call to the aircraft?
A high/low chime, EICAS SELCAL message, and an audio control panel CALL light
you are currently looking at LEGS page 5 to 7. Which page will be displayed if you now press the LEGS button?
LEGS page 1
how is a message in the scratch pad cleared?
By pressing the CLR key
to where is the data entered on the right FMS CDU sent
Both FMCs
on which page would you enable/disable the use of GPS for navigation?
POS REF
during a VNAV climb what speed is normally commanded by the FMC above speed transition altitude?
ECON Climb speed
what must be typed in the scratch pad to create a new waypoint located 15 miles along the 275 radial from the Belfast (BEL) VOR?
BEL275/15
on which page would you prevent the FMC from using VOR/DME updating?
NAV DATA
from which page is the estimated fuel remaining at destination obtained?
PROG page 1 and CRZ page
which quantity indication is available on STATUS display?
Hydraulic
how can memo messages be viewed if the EICAS display message area is full with cautions and advisories?
By pushing the CANC/RCL switch repeatedly until they appear
what is indicated if STATUS appears on the EICAS display?
A new status condition exists
when the APU generator becomes available, what will it automatically override?
Secondary external power on the left Bus
which of the following can all be powered from the ground service Bus?
The main and APU battery charges and miscellaneous cabin and system loads
when an engine is started, what action is required to connect the IDG to its respective Bus assuming the control switch is ON?
No further action is required
what is the in-flight priority order for powering of the L & R AC main buses?
Respective IDG, APU and then the opposite IDG
when does the back up electrical system automatically power one or both transfer buses?
Power to one or both of the main AC buses is lost
what are the centre tank pump pressures relative to the main tank pump pressures?
Higher than
where is fuel used displayed?
PROG page 2
pushing the fuel jettison ARM switch initialises fuel to remain at which of the following aircraft weights?
Maximum landing weight
which of the following are normally displayed on the EICAS display?
N1 and EGT
if the engine start/ignition control switch is at CON, when will the igniters operate?
Continuously, if the fuel control switch is at RUN
which of the following EICAS alert messages has associated recall items?
ENG AUTOSTART
during auto start, what will placing the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN do?
It opens the fuel spar valve and arms the engine fuel valve and the igniters
which statement is true with regard to the EECs operating modes?
A fault in the normal mode will cause automatic transfer to the soft alternate mode
where is the ILS DME distance displayed?
Top left of the PFD attitude indications
which of the following lists all of the ND mode displays capable of showing whether radar returns?
MAP, MAP CTR, APP, VOR
what does the light between the frequency windows on the left radio tuning panel indicate?
Left radio is being tuned by another panel
with a heading reference switch at NORM, what is the reference for the PFD and the ND?
True or magnetic heading depending on Latitude
how is the PFD BARO setting normally adjusted?
On the EFIS control panel
which CDU page is used to inhibit GPS from providing FMC position updates?
POS REF 3/3
what message will appear on the CDU scratchpad if a new aeroplane present position entry fails the internal check twice?
ALIGNMENT REINITIATED
provided it is armed before takeoff at what height should LNAV engage?
50 feet RA
in VNAV, with the window altitude set below the cruise altitude, when would the descend now (DES NOW) activate with a press of the MCP altitude selector?
50 nm before the top of descent point
in flight level change mode, what is the annunciation for pitch during descent?
FLCH SPD
what will happen if the IAS/MACH reference which is pushed above 0.4 MACH?
It alternately changes the display from IAS to MACH
when TOGA is armed under which of the following conditions with the auto throttle failed to engage with a push of either TOGA switch?
Between 50 kts and 400 feet
if the aircraft deviates more than 200 feet from the selected altitude to what colour will the current altitude box on the PFD change?
Amber
when is altitude deviation alerting inhibited?
When G/S is captured
what is the range available in the V/S window?
-6000 to +6000 FPM
what action will cause the shutoff valves in the left or right hydraulic systems to close?
Pulling the respective engine fire switch
when selected ON, the right system demand pump operates…
Continuously
how is the BRAKE SOURCE light extinguished?
By pressurising the centre or right hydraulic system
with RTO selected, if the takeoff is rejected at 90 kts, automatic breaking will be applied on selection of which of the following?
both thrust levers to idle
how are the primary flight computers (PFCs) disconnected?
Manually or automatically
in which of the following flight control modes is yaw damping available?
Normal and secondary mode
which of the following will occur after several degrees of control wheel displacement?
Spoilers will extend to augment roll control
in normal mode the air, pitch trim input from the wheel trim switches results in…
A change in trim reference airspeed
which EICAS message will appear if the primary flight control system is operating in the secondary mode?
FLIGHT CONTROL MODE (CAUTION)
what happens to the slats/flaps when secondary mode automatically engauges as flap 5 is selected from flap 1?
Flaps only move to position 5
how is the leak isolation achieved following a BLEED LEAK message?
Automatically
how is cabin temperature controlled if both cabin temperature controllers fail?
By the air supply and cabin pressurisation controllers controlling the pack flow control valves
from where is the flightdeck conditioned air directly supplied?
The left pack
why should flight time at low altitude be minimised with the equipment calling system in the override mode?
Equipment and displays may fail
when reaching a planned altitude level off which is part of an FMS selected departure, what will happen to the cabin altitude?
It will continue to climb at a pre-calculated rate based on the time to top of climb
how is the target cabin altitude achieved for takeoff from a field elevation of above 8000 feet?
The cabin descends to the target altitude while the aircraft is climbing
when the normal cabin differential pressure of approximately 8.6 psi is reached, what is the cabin rate based on?
The aircraft climb rate
which flightdeck windows have exterior surface anti-icing protection in addition to window heat?
Forward windows only
if the APU fire switch remains locked after a fire warning, how can you unlock the switch?
Push the override switch under the fire switch
what is the total number of fire extinguisher bottles available for the engines?
2 – both of which can be discharged into either engine
when the PFD is providing RA TCAS vertical guidance, what should you do?
Stay outside the defined red area
what is the maximum landing weight for the IGW version aircraft?
208,652 kg
what is the maximum zero fuel weight for the IGW version aircraft?
195,044 kg
what does the amber band on the PFD air speed scale indicate?
Minimum manoeuvre speed margin into stick shaker
if the cabin altitude rises above the normal range, how is this initially indicated on the EICAS pressurisation indications?
The cabin altitude display turns Amber
what is the maximum allowable glideslope angle for a CAT2 or CAT3 automatic landing?
3.25°
what is represented by the red line on the N1 gauge?
RPM operating limit
in primary mode, for which range of flap settings is the auto slat operation armed?
1, 5, 15, 20
up to what altitude can APU bleed air be used?
22,000 feet
what is automatically displayed on the MFD if the left engine vibration exceeds its predetermined limit during flight?
All secondary engine indications for both engines
in which modes does the SLAT load relief operate?
Secondary only
what is the turbulent air penetration speed below 25,000 feet?
270 KIAS
what position will the slats move to if you are approaching the stall, with flap 1 selected and auto slats working normally?
Gapped
taxi fuel is the fuel allowance for…
Engine start, Taxi and APU usage
What is the required fuel (REQ) figure based upon?
The sum of TIF, contingency, diversion and reserve fuel figures
V1 must not be less than…
VMCG
what is the length of an airfield STOPWAY equal to?
ASDA - TORA
for a departure NOT involving a change of direction exceeding 15°, at what height must obstacles in the net T/O flight path be cleared by?
35 feet
what must V1 be greater than?
VMCG
when should reduced thrust takeoff data NOT be used?
When the runway is defined as slippery
what error message will appear on the CARD uplink message if an EST TOW was not entered on the CARD DATALINK request?
REDUCED THRUST NOT CALCULATED
intersection takeoff performance data is required. What would you enter in the CARD DATALINK request?
Tick the INTERSECTION checkbox
if flap 15 were required for takeoff, which of the following performance correction codes would you enter in the CARD DATALINK request?
Code 31 – FLAPS FIXED AT 15
what is the basic index of G-VIIA?
784.0
what items comprise the actual landing weight?
Actual takeoff weight less trip fuel
what action should be taken following the receipt of a REVISIONS TO message due to a change of trim?
Enter trim in FMC
what does the letter L on the zero fuel weight indicate?
The allowable TOW is limited by maximum zero fuel weight
what is the dry operating index of G-VIIA?
782.1
when is the ground service bus powered?
On the ground and in the air
how many gear Lock pins are there for the 777?
5
What is the first action to be taken if airspeed is deemed to be unreliable?
Check the pitch attitude and thrust for the phase of flight
what is the correct action in response to the warning FIRE APU?
Action the FIRE APU checklist
what is the second action of the engine fire procedure?
Close the thrust lever
On approach, with the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminated, what breaking is available?
Accumulator only
with flaps at 20, when RET is selected using the alternate flap selector, which surfaces move?
Flaps move first, then slats
in-flight, what action is required (if any) if the EICAS warning message STABILIZER appears?
Both stabiliser cutout switches should be selected to CUTOUT
following a cabin depressurisation, you don your oxygen mask, establish communications and check the cabin rate. What is your next action?
Select the passenger oxygen ON
when is it NOT necessary to press the engine fire override switches before pulling the engine fire switches?
Engine fire warning
for CAT3A operations how many elements of the approach light system must be identified and kept in view?
Three without a lateral element
how far from the runway end of the runway do the centreline lights change from alternating white and red to just red?
300 m
an aircraft is making an approach to landing in fog. At what point during this approach is a taxing aircraft not allowed into the localiser sensitive area?
2NM from touchdown
on approach below 1000 feet AAL but before decision height, an RVR change occurs. What is the correct action to take?
Continue the approach to decision height
an autoland may be carried out on runways with the following status codes…
E, L, LR
what effect does the use of the PVD have on the landing RVR requirements?
None
PVD may be used during which phases of flight?
Takeoff and landing rollout
prior to takeoff in low visibility conditions, the visibility must be checked from the flight deck. With 15 m spacing, how many centreline lights must be visible for an RVR requirement of 75 m?
4
what is cancelled by pushing a master caution reset switch following a caution alert?
The master caution lights
on the PFD, where is radio altitude displayed?
To the top right of the altitude display
which messages can the CANC/RCL switch remove?
Caution and advisory only
when are the master warning lights and fire bell inhibited?
During a part of the takeoff
do you want to view terrain and weather radar information at the same time. How do you do this?
Select terrain on one ND and WXR on the other ND
The L INBD display selector is at EICAS. What other displays can be selected from the display select panel?
ENG, FUEL and AIR
what happens if the EICAS screen fails when the ELEC synoptic is on the lower centre MFD?
Engine primary indications appear on the lower MFD in the normal format
when you select STA on your EFIS control panel, which navaid stations are displayed on your ND?
VORs and TACANs
which page will be displayed if the INIT REF key is pushed in the cruise?
The APPROACH REF page
when the FMC fuel calculations differ from the actual fuel quantity, which message will be displayed?
Fuel disagree
on which CDU page is an OFFSET routing selected?
ROUTE
what is displayed if the DEP/ARR mode key is pressed immediately after takeoff?
Departure data for the origin airfield
in alternate navigation, how would you tune the right VOR?
Put the frequency into the left side of the right CDU
what will be displayed if the waypoint identifier is entered with more than one geographic location in the database?
the SELECT DESIRED WPT page
you are in the hold. EXIT HOLD is then selected and executed. What will the FMS direct the aircraft to do?
Return using the shortest route via the inbound course to the holding fix before leaving the hold
you need to report 10 miles short of waypoint ABC. How would you put this point into the FMC?
ABC/-10