bio exam 4
Glucagon increases:
- protein degradation.
- breakdown of glycogen in the liver.
- lipid degradation.
- the uptake of lipids in adipose tissue.
- the uptake of glucose by target tissues.
breakdown of glycogen in the liver.
Which hormone stimulates the kidney to conserve calcium and stimulates the synthesis of calcitriol from vitamin D?
- Oxytocin
- Calcitonin
- Parathyroid hormone
- Ecdysone
- Insulin
Parathyroid hormone
Which of the following is controlled directly by an endocrine gland, without input from the hypothalamus or pituitary gland?
- Metabolic rate
- Calcium
- Urine concentration
- Growth
- Secondary sex characteristics
Calcium
If a person had a tumor that caused oversecretion of the posterior pituitary hormones, which hormone would you expect to see at elevated levels?
- Oxytocin
- Aldosterone
- Calcitonin
- Insulin
- Ecdysone
Oxytocin
Which part of the pituitary makes and secretes its own hormones?
- Posterior pituitary
- Portal blood vessels
- Adrenal gland
- Hypothalamus
- Anterior pituitary
Anterior pituitary
Hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are:
- tropic hormones.
- proteins.
- carbohydrates.
- water-soluble.
- steroids.
steroids
Which hormone stimulates cells to use glucose as a metabolic fuel and to convert excess glucose into fat and glycogen storage?
- Cortisol
- Somatostatin
- Norepinephrine
- Insulin
- Glucagon
Insulin
Which of the following is an effect of increased levels of antidiuretic hormone in the blood?
- Uterine contractions during birth
- Water conservation by the kidney
- Production of enkephalins by the hypothalamus
- Production of somatomedins by the liver
- Letdown of milk from mammary tissues
Water conservation by the kidney
Oxytocin?
- increases reabsorption of water in the kidney.
- stimulates uterine contractions at birth.
- increases the rate of ovulation in the ovary.
- decreases the volume of urine produced.
- stimulates release of a tropic hormone.
stimulates uterine contractions at birth.
If follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are blocked just prior to puberty in a male child,:
- puberty will begin prematurely.
- the onset of puberty will cause female sexual characteristics to develop.
- puberty will be halted.
- the posterior pituitary will produce gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
- the testis will produce testosterone.
puberty will be halted.
Local or circulating hormones are capable of acting on target cells only if target cells are equipped with response components called?
- morphogens.
- pheromones.
- ECFs.
- cytokines.
- receptors.
receptors.
The steroid hormones are synthesized from?
- cholesterol.
- amines.
- aldosterone.
- tyrosine.
- protein.
cholesterol
Which statement about luteinizing hormone is true?
- Its production is controlled by corticotropin-releasing hormone.
- It stimulates testes to increase production of sex hormones.
- it stimulates ovaries to increase production of follicle-stimulating hormone.
- It is a steroid hormone.
- It is prompted by testosterone to initiate development of secondary sex characteristics in males.
It stimulates testes to increase production of sex hormones.
If you fast for a day, which hormone is most likely to be found at an increased level in your blood?
- Glucagon
- Somatostatin
- Insulin
- Calcitonin
- Prolactin
Glucagon
Overproduction or underproduction of _______ in children can cause gigantism or dwarfism.
- adrenaline
- vasopressin
- parathyroid hormone
- testosterone
- growth hormone
growth hormone
Which hormone produced by the anterior pituitary stimulates the production of a pigment?
- Adrenocorticotropin
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
- Prolactin
- Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
Which hormone activates many aspects of the fight-or-flight response?
- Testosterone
- Epinephrine
- Thyroxine
- Prolactin
- Leptin
Epinephrine
Blood glucose levels must be carefully maintained within a narrow window. What endocrine organ is responsible for this task?
- parathyroid gland
- pineal gland
- pituitary gland
- pancreas
pancreas
Choose the hormone that is NOT correctly matched with the endocrine gland that secretes it.
- pineal gland—melatonin
- adrenal medulla—cortisol
- adrenal cortex—aldosterone
- pancreas—insulin
- posterior lobe of pituitary gland—oxytocin
adrenal medulla—cortisol
A _________ is a regulatory molecule that is secreted into the blood by an endocrine gland.
- G protein
- neurotransmitter
- hormone
- peptide
- metabolite
hormone
A doctor might give an expectant mother _____ to stimulate uterine contractions and induce labor.
- adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- insulin
- follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- oxytocin
- thyroxine
oxytocin
The mammary glands of a pregnant female will begin to produce milk in response to changes in the level of which of the following hormones?
- luteinizing hormone (LH)
- follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
- estrogen
- oxytocin
- prolactin
prolactin
Gigantism is an endocrine disorder that results from an excess of ______ during childhood.
- insulin
- testosterone
- thyroid-stimulating hormone
- growth hormone
- parathyroid hormone
growth hormone
Which statement about hormones, hormone-producing cells, and target cells is true?
- All hormones travel in the blood to target cells.
- Target cells have receptors for binding the hormone they are a target for.
- Endocrine glands have ducts that lead to the outside of the body.
- Endocrine cells do not exist as single cells within a tissue.
- Cells in close proximity to hormone-producing cells are more strongly affected by the hormone than cells at a distance.
Target cells have receptors for binding the hormone they are a target for.
Shortly after ingesting a big plate of carbohydrate-rich pasta, you measure your blood's hormone levels. What results would you expect, compared to before the meal?
- high insulin, high glucagon
- high insulin, low glucagon
- low insulin, no change in glucagon
- low insulin, low glucagon
- low insulin, high glucagon
high insulin, low glucagon
Which gland of the endocrine system is responsible for circadian cycles?
- pineal gland
- pancreas
- adrenal glands
- thyroid gland
- gonads
pineal gland
The regulation of water volume in the blood involves which hormone?
- insulin
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- oxytocin
- Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
- Glucagon
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Which statement about luteinizing hormone is true?
- Its production is controlled by corticotropin-releasing hormone.
- It is a steroid hormone.
- It stimulates testes to increase production of sex hormones.
- It stimulates ovaries to increase production of follicle-stimulating hormone.
- It is prompted by testosterone to initiate development of secondary sex characteristics in males.
It stimulates testes to increase production of sex hormones.
Every time you eat a cookie or candy bar, your blood sugar increases. This triggers an increase in the hormone _____.
- insulin
- glucagon
- epinephrine
- glycogen
- secretin
insulin
Which of the following endocrine glands releases steroid hormones?
- adrenal medulla
- posterior pituitary
- pineal gland
- adrenal cortex
- anterior pituitary
adrenal cortex
Which statement about sexual and asexual reproduction is true?
- Regeneration is a form of sexual reproduction.
- Budding is a form of sexual reproduction.
- Parthenogenesis is the development of offspring from unfertilized eggs.
- Asexual reproduction is more common among vertebrates than invertebrates.
- Every member of a sexually reproducing population can convert resources into offspring.
Parthenogenesis is the development of offspring from unfertilized eggs.
If a man elects to have a vasectomy as a form of contraception, which duct(s) will be cut and tied off in the procedure?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
3
Which of the contraceptive methods listed protects against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
- “The pill” (combination pill)
- Intrauterine device (IUD)
- Condom
- Rhythm method
- Diaphragm
Condom
Which statement about the male reproductive system is true?
- The testes of most mammals are located outside the body cavity.
- When temperatures rise, scrotal muscles contract, moving testes away from the body.
- The optimal temperature for spermatogenesis is normal body temperature.
- Approximately 30 percent of the volume of semen is sperm.
- The testes and bulbourethral glands are located in the scrotum.
The testes of most mammals are located outside the body cavity.
Of the methods listed, which is the most effective form of birth control?
- Intrauterine device
- Vasectomy
- Birth control pill
- Condom
- Rhythm method
Vasectomy
The uterus opens into the vagina at a muscular necklike region called the
- labia majora.
- cervix.
- pubic symphysis.
- clitoris.
- labia minora.
cervix.
Pregnancy tests that can be done at home detect the presence of
- follicle-stimulating hormone.
- progesterone.
- human chorionic gonadotropin.
- luteinizing hormone.
- estrogen
human chorionic gonadotropin
The corpus luteum secretes:
- follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone.
- estrogen and progesterone.
- FSH and estrogen.
- FSH, LH, and estrogen.
- LH and progesterone
estrogen and progesterone.
The _______ cycles of humans, as opposed to those of most other mammals, include _______.
- ovarian; formation of a corpus luteum
- uterine; menstruation
- reproductive; a distinct period of sexual receptivity
- uterine; a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) before ovulation
- uterine; buildup of the endometrium
uterine; menstruation
A complete blockage in the vas deferens at the end closest to the testis would cause newly matured sperm to remain in the
- urethra.
- lumens of the seminiferous tubules.
- epididymis.
- seminiferous tubules.
- vas deferens.
epididymis
Species with separate male and female members are described as
- sequential hermaphrodites.
- parthenogenetic.
- monoecious.
- dioecious.
- simultaneous hermaphrodites.
dioecious.
Which anatomical feature(s) is/are shared by both the reproductive and excretory systems in most male mammals?
- Epididymis
- Prostate gland
- Vas deferens
- Urethra
- Seminiferous tubules
Urethra
In humans, fertilization typically occurs in the
- ovary.
- upper regions of the oviduct (near the ovary).
- uterus.
- vagina.
- lower regions of the oviduct (near the entrance to the uterus).
upper regions of the oviduct (near the ovary).
An infertile couple has come into a clinic to determine what form of assisted reproductive technique would be the best for them to try. The physician examining them determines that the woman has functional ovaries and her oviducts are not blocked. The man's sperm count, however, is low. The physician explains that under these circumstances, the simplest procedure that involves the least technology is _______, which will allow the sperm a shorter trip to get to an ovulated egg and will also allow the embryo to arrive in the uterus at the time it would under normal circumstances.
- artificial insemination
- gamete cryopreservation
- intrauterine embryo transfer
- in vitro fertilization
- intracytoplasmic sperm injection
artificial insemination
Which statement characterizes in vitro fertilization?
- Eggs and sperm are placed together outside the body in culture medium.
- A blastocyst is usually injected into the upper end of the fallopian tube where fertilization normally would take place.
- It is inappropriate for patients with blocked oviducts.
- It can be used with artificial insemination.
- Physician removes the egg ovulated during the woman's regular ovarian cycle.
Eggs and sperm are placed together outside the body in culture medium.
Which of the contraceptive methods listed has the highest failure rate?
- Spermicidal jelly
- Hormones administered by injection, patches, and rings
- Oral hormones (“the pill”)
- Intrauterine device (IUD)
- Diaphragm
Spermicidal jelly
Normally, eggs are fertilized in the _____, and the resulting embryos implant themselves in the _____.
- cervix; uterus
- vagina; endometrium
- ovary; uterus
- uterus; oviducts
- oviducts; endometrium lining the uterus
oviducts; endometrium lining the uterus
Birth control pills and other hormonal contraceptives may contain any of these hormones EXCEPT:
- testosterone.
- progesterone alone.
- progesterone and estrogen together
- estrogen alone.
- none of these
testosterone.
Which of these is NOT a known cause of female infertility?
- cancer
- hormonal imbalances
- infection
- ovulating more than one egg at a time
ovulating more than one egg at a time
The _____ is the site of gamete production in human females.
- endometrium
- uterus
- birth canal
- oviduct
- ovary
ovary
In the male reproductive system, sperm are made in the ______.
- testes
- urethra
- prostate
- vas deferens
- seminal vesicle
testes
In females, the _______ functions to mature an egg and the ________ functions to prepare the uterus for pregnancy
- gonadotropin releasing hormone ... corpus luteum
- ovary ... endometrium
- reproductive cycle ... hormonal cycle
- hypothalamus ... cervix
- ovarian cycle ... menstrual cycle
ovarian cycle ... menstrual cycle
An animal called a hydra can reproduce by growing a miniature version of itself directly from the tissues of the parent. The miniature hydra then breaks off and grows to full size. This type of reproduction is best called:
- parthenogenesis.
- binary fission.
- fragmentation.
- budding.
- sexual reproduction.
budding.
Which statement represents the principal difference between the uterine cycle of humans and the cycles of other mammals?
- The uterine cycle of humans occurs if fertilization occurs, whereas the uterine cycles of most mammals occur if fertilization does not occur
- The uterine cycles of other mammals occur if fertilization occurs, whereas the uterine cycle of humans occurs if fertilization does not occur.
- The uterine cycles of most other mammals lack menstruation
- Peaks of progesterone in the uterine cycles of most other mammals correspond to periods of enhanced sexual receptivity referred to as estrus or “heat.”
- The uterine cycles of most other mammals do not involve any changes to the uterine lining.
The uterine cycles of most other mammals lack menstruation
During which trimester do bones enlarge and muscles develop in the fetus?
- 4
- 1
- 3
- 2
2
Where is fertilization most likely to occur?
- the cervix
- the ovaries
- the vagina
- the uterus
- the Fallopian tubes
the Fallopian tubes
The epididymis is the structure in the male anatomy:
- from which sperm are expelled from the body.
- that produces a milky, basic substance.
- where meiosis occurs.
- where the sperm mature.
- where the primary spermatocyte is produced.
where the sperm mature.
Men exposed to hot tubs or hot baths for 30 minutes or more each week are likely to have _____ sperm count because sperm development is sensitive to ______.
- high … temperature
- high … soaking in water
- low … temperature
- low … soaking in water
low … temperature
The corpus luteum:
-secretes progesterone but not estrogen
- is the initial source of progesterone during pregnancy
- secretes chorionic gonadotropin
- is the only source of the hormones that maintain pregnancy.
- is reabsorbed when fertilization occurs
is the initial source of progesterone during pregnancy
If you feel constantly tired, intolerant of cold, and mentally sluggish, you should probably ask your doctor to test your _______ levels, to determine whether they are elevated, indicating you have a thyroid problem
A - oxytocin
B - follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C - growth hormone (GH)
D - thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
E - luteinizing hormone (LH
d- thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Hormones produced here stimulate the development and maintenance of female characteristics and sexual behavior.
Ovary
Hormones produced here raise blood calcium.
The parathyroid glands
Hormones produced here stimulate and maintain metabolism necessary for normal development and growth, and stimulate bone formation.
The thyroid gland
produces thyroid hormones (stimulate and maintain metabolism necessary for normal development and growth) and calcitonin (stimulates bone formation):
The thyroid glan
produce parathyroid hormone, which stimulates the release of calcium from bone into the blood. Parathyroid hormone also stimulates absorption of calcium by the gut and kidney.
The parathyroid glands
produce the steroid hormones estrogen (development and maintenance of female characteristics), and progesterone (sustains pregnancy; helps maintain secondary female sexual characteristics).
The ovaries
Stimulates fight-or-flight reactions and mediates response to stress.
The adrenal medulla
produces epinephrine and norepinephrine (“fight-or-flight” response), while the adrenal cortex produces glucocorticoids (response to stress), and mineralocorticoids (involved in salt and water balance
The adrenal medulla
Hormones produced here stimulate the uptake and metabolism of glucose, increase the conversion of glucose to glycogen and fat, and raise blood sugar.
The pancreas
produces insulin (uptake and metabolism of glucose) and glucagon (breakdown of glycogen).
The pancreas
Mediates response to long-term stress
Cortisol
a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, orchestrates the body's response to a stressful situation of more than 5 minutes.
Cortisol
Secreted by the thyroid when blood Ca2+ is too high, stimulates incorporation of calcium into bone, thereby lowering blood Ca2+.
calcitonin
Breaks down bone
parathyroid hormone
Secreted by the parathyroid glands when blood calcium is too low, stimulates release of calcium from bone and absorption of calcium by gut and kidney.
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
released by the posterior pituitary, is a small peptide that stimulates contraction of the muscles of the uterus during childbirth:
Oxytocin
controls milk ejection from the mammary glands.
Oxytocin
Stimulates milk production
Prolactin
a protein produced by the anterior pituitary, has as its target organs the mammary glands where it stimulates milk production.
Prolactin
Which statement represents the principal difference between the uterine cycle of humans and the cycles of other mammals?
A - The uterine cycles of other mammals occur if fertilization occurs, whereas the uterine cycle of humans occurs if fertilization does not occur.
B - The uterine cycles of most other mammals lack menstruation.
C - Peaks of progesterone in the uterine cycles of most other mammals correspond to periods of enhanced sexual receptivity referred to as estrus or “heat.”
D - The uterine cycles of most other mammals do not involve any changes to the uterine lining.
B - The uterine cycles of most other mammals lack menstruation.
In the early 1900s, oyster fishermen cut sea stars (starfish), which are predators of oysters, into pieces and threw them back into the sea. This practice led to an explosion in the sea star population because
A - other sea stars ate the pieces and were able to increase their reproductive output.
B - each arm with a portion of the central disc regenerated into a new individual
C - competition was removed from the stronger sea stars that were not caught, allowing them to increase their reproductive output.
D - each arm could form a new individual through budding
B - each arm with a portion of the central disc regenerated into a new individual
a storage structure located on the surface of each testis where sperm mature and become motile.
The epididymis
is a muscular, thick-walled cavity in which the fetus develops, receiving its nutrition from a placenta that forms after implantation of the blastocyst.
The uterus, or womb
Compared to asexual reproduction, what is the advantage of sexual reproduction?
A - Offspring are genetically unique.
B - Two parents are required.
C - Each parent has half their alleles passed on to the offspring.
D - Reproduction is time-consuming.
A - Offspring are genetically unique.
Of the various ways of asexual reproduction in animals, which still makes use of a gamete?
A - parthenogenesis
B - budding
C - fragmentation
D - binary fission
A - parthenogenesis
Female fire salamanders retain eggs in oviducts, where young are nourished by egg yolk throughout development. Which form of embryonic development is this?
A - oviparity
B - ovoviviparity
C - viviparity
B - ovoviviparity
In the female reproductive system, which structure is the site where an embryo develops during pregnancy?
A - oviduct
B - uterus
C - ovary
D - cervix
E - vagina
B - uterus
Oogenesis occurs in the
A - ovaries
B - testes
C - oviducts
D - uterus
E - vagina
A - ovaries
In females, the _______ functions to mature an egg and the ________ functions to prepare the uterus for pregnancy
A - ovarian cycle ... menstrual cycle
B - ovary ... endometrium
C - gonadotropin releasing hormone ... corpus luteum
D - hypothalamus ... cervix
E - reproductive cycle ... hormonal cycle
A - ovarian cycle ... menstrual cycle
A resting membrane potential
A - Is the electrical difference between the inside
and outside of the membrane
B - Is a polarized membrane
C - Can only occur in neurons
D - A and B
E - All of the above
D - A and B
Calcium voltage gated channels are opened on presynaptic neurons and the influx of calcium helps neurotransmitters be released from synaptic vesicles.
Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer.
A - This is true
B - This is false
A - This is true
If depolarization occurs, the membrane potential becomes more positive because K+ gates have opened.
Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer.
A - This is true
B - This is false
B - This is false
Place the events at a chemical synapse in the order in which they occur:
1. Action potential arrives at pre-synaptic neuron’s end bulbs; Ca2+ channels to open
2. Increase of Ca2+ in bulbs causes vesicles to fuse with presynaptic neuron’s membrane
3. Postsynaptic potential develops
4. Neurotransmitter binds to receptors (ligand-gated channels) on postsynaptic membrane
5. Neurotransmitter exocytosed; diffuses across synaptic cleft
A - 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
B - 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
C - 1, 2, 5, 4, 3
D - 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
E - 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C - 1, 2, 5, 4, 3
At step 3, ______ is moving into the cell
A - K+
B - Cl-
C - Na+
D - Ca+
E - anions
D - Ca+
Depolarization occurs when —
A - The membrane becomes more positive
B - The membrane becomes more negative
C - The membrane remains unchanged
D - The membrane remains at -70mV
E - The membrane potential is reversed
A - The membrane becomes more positive
The sodium potassium pumps actively transport —
A - both sodium and potassium into the cell
B - both sodium and potassium out of the cell
C - sodium into the cell and potassium out of
the cell
D - potassium into the cell and sodium out of
the cell
C - sodium into the cell and potassium out of
the cell
The electrochemical gradient of a given ion determines the movement of that ion across a cell membrane. Based on your knowledge of the normal intra- and extracellular concentrations of Na+ and K+ ions across a resting membrane, what would you expect to happen when both Na+ and K+ voltage-gated channels were opened in response to an action potential?
- Na+ and K+ would both move into the cell.
- Na+ would move out of the cell, whereas K+ would move into the cell.
- Na+ would move out of the cell but K+ flow would cease.
- Na+ and K+ would both move out of the cell.
- Na+ would move into the cell, whereas K+ would move out of the cell.
Na+ would move into the cell, whereas K+ would move out of the cell.
The area where a neuron comes extremely close to a target cell and transmits information to the target cell is
- the axon hillock.
- the synapse.
- Insulated with myelin.
- the node of Ranvier.
- the ganglion
the synapse.
All of the following are parts of the basic structure of a neuron except a(n)
- dendrite.
- axon terminal.
- cell body.
- axon.
- spindle.
spindle.
Which of the following stimuli do vertebrates NOT have a specialized receptor for?
- smell
- hearing
- vision
- taste
- humidity
humidity
Receptors stimulated by changes in temperature are called __________.
- mechanoreceptors
- thermoreceptors
- sensoryreceptors
- chemoreceptors
thermoreceptors
What flexible, crystal-like structure of the eye focuses light on the retina?
- choroid
- lens
- sclera
- optic chiasma
- iri
lens
Which structure in the eye is associated with color blindness?
- fundus
- canal of Schlemm
- cones
- rods
cones
The receptors for _______ and _______ are classified as chemoreceptors.
- pain; pressure
- taste; smell
- smell; hearing
- proprioception; pain
- sight; smell
taste; smell
The transparent anterior portion of the fibrous layer of the eye is the _______.
- choroid
- iris
- cornea
- Retina
- ciliary body
cornea
What are the three critical features of a nervous system?
- structural support, transportation, and secretion
- receiving input, processing information, and initiating a response
- pain receptivity, preventing suffering, and endurance
- inhalation, gas exchange, and olfaction
- absorbing nutrients, muscle contraction, and movement of gases
receiving input, processing information, and initiating a response
Which cells are responsible for the distribution of sensory information and the coordination of motor activity
- motor neuronse
- neuroglia
- sensory neurons
- interneurons
interneurons
The nervous system has two major anatomical divisions: ________, consisting of the brain and spinal cord, and the _______ , which includes all other nervous tissue.
- the central nervous system (or CNS) and peripheral nervous system , PNS
- the central nervous system (or CNS) and sympathetic division
- peripheral nervous system (PNS) and the central nervous system (or CNS)
- peripheral nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic division
the central nervous system (or CNS) and peripheral nervous system , PN
The photosensitive layer in the vertebrate eye is the:
- lens.
- iris.
- cornea.
- retina.
- pupil.
retina.
The axons of neurons are often enclosed by a fatty protective coating called:
- the myelin sheath
- blubber.
- synapses.
- cell walls.
- cholesterol.
the myelin sheath
Motor neurons:
- are confined to the spinal cord and brain.
- convey signals to muscles or glands.
- respond to touch, heat, or any of the other senses animals possess by initiating action potentials.
- collect sensory information from interneurons.
- integrate the signals coming in from many sensory neurons and relay them to other motor neurons
convey signals to muscles or glands.
What is the function of glial cells?
- carry signals from one place to another in the body
- assist and nourish neurons
- produce elastin and collagen
- store fat
- squeeze blood from the heart into vessels
assist and nourish neurons
Which structure is compromised when a passenger on a plane has a cold and experiences pain during takeoff and landing?
- Semicircular ducts
- Basilar membrane
- Eustachian tube
- Cochlea
- Auditory canal
Eustachian tube
Auditory information comes from hair cells in the _______ ear that are concentrated in the _______.
- Inner; organ of Corti
- middle; vestibular apparatus
- inner; basilar membrane
- middle; semicircular canals
- outer; tympanic membrane
inner; organ of Corti
The sound of the alarm clock in the morning triggers a(n) _______ in the sleeper.
- thermoreceptor
- mechanoreceptor
- photoreceptor
- electroreceptor
- chemoreceptor
mechanoreceptor
Diseases that destroy myelin
- impair conduction of action potentials.
- also destroy astrocytes.
- also destroy tripartite synapses.
- can be cured.
- are restricted to the central nervous system.
impair conduction of action potentials.
Each neuron has two different extensions from its main central body; these are called the:
- nerves.
- synapses and dendrites.
- axons and synapses.
- dendrites and axons.
- nerves and axons
dendrites and axons.
Threshold potential is —
- -70mV
- -55mV
- 0mV
- +70mV
-55mV
Nervous systems are able to encode, process, and store information because of the properties of two classes of cells: _______ cells and _______ cells.
- Purkinje; pyramidal
- nerve; glial
- presynaptic; postsynaptic
- axonal; dendritic]
- nerve; muscle
nerve; glial
Your ears pop on a plane because pressure equalization is occurring in the
- Eustachian tube
- Vestibular
- Cochlear duct
- Outer ear canal
- Cochlea
Eustachian tube
Vertigo is a condition in which a person feels like she or he is spinning. Which structure is a likely location for the viral infection that often causes vertigo?
- Eustachian tube
- Cochlea
- Vestibular system
- Tympanic membrane
- Oval window
Vestibular system
If the normal activity of cone cells in the retina were blocked, what would be the result in the flow of visual information?
- Rods would not be able to cause neurotransmitter release in dark conditions.
- Retinal ganglion cells would not fire action potentials.
- Cones would synapse with ganglion cells.
- Color vision would be limited to one spectrum.
- Information about color would not be detected.
Information about color would not be detected.
Diseases such as multiple sclerosis and Guillain–Barre syndrome damage myelin. What is the common result of this damage?
- The mitochondria within a neuron cannot function.
- Glial cells reproduce faster.
- Conduction of action potentials is impaired.
- There are fewer astrocytes left to protect the axons.
- The blood–brain barrier becomes more permeable.
Conduction of action potentials is impaired.
In vertebrates, most synapses are chemical, which means that information is transferred from one neuron to the next via
- glycogen.
- myelin.
- neurotransmitters.
- direct physical contact.
- glucose.
neurotransmitters.
A resting membrane potential
- Can only occur in neurons
- Is a depolarized membrane
- Continuous conduction down an axon occurs on myelinated axons
- Is the electrical difference between the inside and outside of the membrane
Is the electrical difference between the inside and outside of the membrane
To bring distant objects into focus, mammals and birds
- contract ciliary muscles to make the lens rounder.
- relax suspensory ligaments attached to the lens.
- alter lens shape by moving the lens closer to the retina.
- alter lens shape by relaxing ciliary muscles.
- alter lens shape by moving the lens farther from the retina.
alter lens shape by relaxing ciliary muscles.