A320 Theory
On the RMP, the ON/OFF switch controls:
The power supply to the RMP
How many igniters are used during an automatic engine start?
One igniter (A or B) is used on the first automatic start attempt on the ground. In flight both igniters are used for all starts attempts
What are the two main functions of the FMGC?
Flight management and flight guidance
The MAINT BUS switch is used to supply only ground services. Where is it located?
On the ceiling in the forward galley just outside the flight deck
What is the wingspan of the A320?
34.1 m
Above what cabin altitude will the cabin oxygen masks be deployed automatically?
14,000 ft
What happens if the EXPED button is pushed when the FCU selected altitude is above the current altitude?
THR CLB (if A/THR active) and EXP CLB engage The speed becomes managed with a target of green dot, altitude constraints are disregarded.
With the ATT HDG switch set to CAPT 3, and AIR DATA switch set to NORM: which computer(s) will be providing air, attitude and heading data to the Captain's PFD?
ADIRU 1 will be providing air data, and ADIRU 3 attitude and heading data
The cargo doors are powered by:
The yellow hydraulic system
If the FO fully deflects the hand wheel while manoeuvring on the ground, what angle will the nose wheel be at?
75°
Which probes are not heated on the ground?
TAT probes
What impact does selecting engine and or wing anti-ice have on the engines?
The N1 or EPR limit is automatically reduced, and the idle N1 or EPR is automatically increased
What is the max continuous thrust EGT limit for the CFM engine?
915°C
What are the different types of flight guidance?
Managed and selected
What protections are available in normal law?
Load factor limitation, pitch attitude, bank angle, angle of attack, and high speed
How is a temporary flight plan indicated on the ND?
A dashed yellow line
Select the correct statement about the FIRE detection and fault logic for the ENG and APU (select the most complete answer)
A fire warning is triggered if a break occurs in both fire detection loops within 5 sec of each other (flame effect)
What information is always available on the permanent data section of the SD?
TAT (Total Air Temperature)
What is the meaning of a AMBER light in a flight deck pushbutton?
A failure that the flight crew should be aware of, but does not call for immediate action
Where can the battery voltage be checked?
On the ELEC overhead panel and ECAM ELEC page
What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used for electrical power?
Maximum certified altitude
When is pack flow automatically increased to HIGH, regardless of the position of the PACK FLOW control knob?
When using APU bleed or during single pack operation
What is the meaning of a BLUE light in a flight deck pushbutton?
Normal operation of a system used temporarily
How is the outflow valve actuated?
One of three electric motors Two automatic, one manual
After a takeoff in CONFIG 1+F, what would happen if FLAP 0 is not selected as the aircraft accelerates?
At 210 kt the flaps will automatically retract changing the config from 1+F to 1. This raises the VFE from 215 to 230 kt
Which unit is used as a short-term interface between the flight crew and FMGC?
FCU
What is the function of the hydraulic priority valves?
They cut off hydraulic power to heavy load users if the hydraulic pressure in a system gets low
What will trigger the CAB PR LDG ELEV FAULT (amber) alert?
The active CPC is no longer receiving the landing field elevation automatically from the FMGS. The flight crew must adjust the target landing elevation using the LDG ELEV rotary knob on the CABIN PRESS panel
What does an amber half box around the FOB on the EWD indicate?
Not all of the displayed fuel quantity is usable
When does the generator load turn amber on the ELEC SD page?
The engine generator load is above 100%
When does the green AVAIL light illuminate on the APU start push button?
N > 99.5%
When the fuel tanks are completely filled, an allowance of up to_____total capacity is provided within the system to allow for expansion due to temperature rise
0.02
What is the normal voltage and frequency for the AC and DC systems on the A320?
3 phase AC 115/200v 400Hz, and 28v DC
How can you check that engine anti-ice has been selected on?
ON (BLUE) light on one or more ENG anti-ice push buttons, ENG A. ICE memo displayed in GREEN on the EWD
ALPHA-FLOOR is available from:
Liftoff until the aircraft reaches 100 ft RA on approach
Which statement is correct regarding the STROBE switch in AUTO?
The strobe lights come on automatically when the main gear struts are not compressed
When the ND is set to the PLAN mode, how is the map orientated?
To true north
Which ACP transmission key will illuminate if the cabin attendants are calling the cockpit?
CAB
Select the correct statement about the AGENT pushbuttons on the FIRE panel
When the associated FIRE PB (ENG or APU) is released SQUIB illuminates in white on the corresponding agent pushbutton(s)
On the PFD, what causes the indicated barometric altitude to change colour (digital value)?
Below MDA (or the MDH) entered in the MCDU Perf Page: The current altitude digits are steady amber
Which statement about the FAC is true? ****
When the AP is engaged, the rudder trim knob is inoperative, and the master FMGC sends rudder trim orders to the FACs. In addition the FAC flight envelope function performs the alpha protection in normal law
What does REV in GREEN in the N1/EPR gauge on the E/WD mean?
The thrust reverser system is fully deployed
What is the meaning of a RED light in a flight deck pushbutton?
A failure requiring immediate action
The thrust levers are moved to the TOGA detent during takeoff. Which configuration would you expect the avionics ventilation system to select if the OAT is 40°C?
Closed
Regarding an autoland approach, with both autopilots engaged, which FMGC is master?
Both
What impact does a CAB PR SYS 1+2 FAULT alert have?
Both cabin pressure controllers have failed. The flight crew will set the MODE SEL push button to MAN and adjust the position of the outflow valve as required
What does a green arrow on the bottom of the ECAM status page indicate?
It is displayed if the data on the status page has overflowed off the screen
The aircraft is fitted with emergency evacuation slides at:
The four entry doors and overwing exits
Which computer generates amber cautions?
FWC
What is the normal operating pressure of the hydraulic systems?
3000PSI including when powered by the RAT
Typically when will direct law be active?
Direct law is the flare mode for alternate law. Alternate reconfigures to direct law when the landing gear is extended
What colour will the secondary flight plan be when it is displayed on the ND?
White
When is auto-start abort and automatic dry cranking available?
During an automatic start on the ground only
What is the primary method of communication for datalink messages controlled via the ATSU?
The datalink system primarily uses VHF3
Which of the following statements about the use of APU bleed air is correct?
The use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice is not permitted
Where can you view the potable and waste water tank quantities?
On the Forward Attendant Panel (FAP)
Which of the following statements best describes the operation of the fuel transfer valve(s)?
When a low fuel level is sensed in an inner tank (< 750 kg), one transfer valve will open in each wing
What happens to the wing and engine anti-ice valves when electrical power fails?
Wing anti-ice valves close, engine anti-ice valves open
The cross feed valve (X FEED) is :
Normally closed
Where is the flap/slat position displayed?
On the the E/WD
All flight control surfaces are:
Electrically-controlled and hydraulically-actuated. The THS and rudder can also be mechanically-controlled
When will the approach phase activate?
Automatically when overflying the DECEL pseudo waypoint with NAV, LOC* or LOC engaged. It can also be manually activated by selecting ACTIVATE APPR PHASE on the PERF page
When is T.O. INHIBIT displayed on the EW/D?
First engine to takeoff power to 1,500 ft (phases 3, 4 and 5)
After engine start, which MCDU page should be used to modify ZFW and ZFWCG?
Fuel Prediction page (FUEL PRED)
During an automatic start sequence on the ground when does the ignition start and stop?
Ignition starts at an N2 of 16%, and stops when N2 is more than 50%
What happens when the landing gear is selected down on approach?
The WHEEL page appears on the LOWER ECAM DU
Which C/Bs have red caps on them to prevent them from being reset?
WTB's
Which LGCIU normally controls the retraction cycle?
One LGCIU controls one complete gear cycle, then switches over automatically to the other LGCIU at the completion of the retraction cycle. It also switches over in the case of failure
If a system page push button fails on the ECAM control panel, can the corresponding system page still be viewed?
Yes, the ALL button allows the flight crew to select the desired SD page. This provides redundancy in the case of an ECAM control panel failure
What is the cockpit handset typically used for?
PA announcements to the cabin only
What is the significance of the green coloured circuit breakers?
Green collared circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM
If an emergency access procedure has been initiated by a cabin crew member, the buzzer in the cockpit will sound for:
Continuously
How many shut-off valves are there to isolate the toilets?
One per toilet
After an ND failure, which of the following statements is correct?
The ND can be manually transferred to the PFD
Regarding ALPHA FLOOR, which of the following statements is true?
It will engage even if the A/THR is switched off
When will the PTU pushbutton FAULT (amber) light illuminate?
When there is an overheat, low air pressure or low fluid level in either green or yellow reservoirs
How can armed FMA modes be identified on the PFD?
Armed FMA modes are displayed in blue (selected) or magenta (managed)
Which hydraulic systems have fire shutoff valves?
Green and yellow
On the ground, which configuration would you expect the avionics ventilation system to select if the OAT is 3°C on an overcast day?
Closed
What is the runway slope limitation for the A320?
+ 2%
What is the maximum tyre speed?
195 kts
What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff?
1,500 kg
Which of the following statements best describe a level 3 ECAM alert?
A flashing red master warning light, a red warning message on the E/WD, automatic call of the relevant system page, and a CRC, specific sound or synthetic voice
What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended (VLO extension)?
250 kts
What is the maximum speed (VFE) with CONF FULL for the A320?
177 kts
What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted (VLO retraction)?
220 kts
What is the maximum speed (VFE) with CONF 1+F for the A320?
215 kts
What are the minimum and maximum cabin differential pressure limits?
+9 to -1 PSI
Maximum reverse thrust should not be used below what airspeed?
70 kts
What is the maximum operating speed for the windshield wipers?
230 kts
What is the cabin pressure safety relief valve setting?
8.6 PSI
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for the A320?
38 kt (gusts included)
What is the maximum operating altitude with slats and/or flaps extended?
20,000 ft
How long can you remain in TOGA thrust?
10 min during single engine operations
What happens if you take off without V2 being entered on the PERF page?
If V2 is not inserted, the speed reference system SRS will not engage for takeoff
After a cockpit oxygen mask has been used, how can the mask microphone be cut-off and boom microphone be re-activated?
Close the left hand door of the mask stowage box, and push the RESET/TEST slide. The OXY ON flag will disappear
Below what height do the FWC's generate height announcements?
2,500 ft
The aircraft is on the ground with external power plugged into the aircraft, and the APU running. How can the APU generator be connected to the electrical system?
By pushing the EXT PWR pb when the blue ON light is illuminated
The FAULT (amber) light is illuminated in the ENG 1 pump pushbutton, when will this light extinguish?
When the pushbutton is selected OFF for all cases excluding reservoir overheat. The FAULT light will remain on as long as the overheat lasts
What is the starter limitation for the APU?
A 60 min cooling period is required following three consecutive start attempts
If power to the cockpit door fails:
The door unlocks automatically, but remains closed
The NAV and LOGO switch has two positions, 1 and 2. What is the difference between the two positions?
Position 1 turns on the logo lights and the first set of navigation lights, position 2 turns on the logo lights and the second set of navigation lights
When will the ground spoilers fully extend?
If the ground spoilers are armed, the wheel speed exceeds 72 kt and both thrust levers are reset to idle
If the upper ECAM DU fails, or is switched off, how can a system or status page be displayed for review?
A momentary press on the associated system page push button on the ECP will toggle between the E/WD, and the selected system page on the lower ECAM DU
Select the correct statement about the wingtip brakes (WTB):
The wing tip brakes will only activate when asymmetry is detected with either the flap or slat system. The flap lever should remain in the position it was in at the time of WTB activation
In normal law, when does flight mode change to the flare mode?
At 50 ft RA
Select the correct statement about the potable water system:
The potable water is normally pressurised by the pneumatic system
When will the SEL light illuminate on each RMP?
If VHF1 is tuned by RMP2, the SEL light will be illuminated on RMP1 and RMP2 only
Above what cabin altitude will the cabin oxygen masks be deploy automatically?
14,000 ft
Which of the following communication methods are used for datalink messages?
VHF, HF or SATCOM (when fitted and available)
What would happen if the APU master switch was turned off immediately following the use of APU bleed?
APU continues to run for a cooling period of 60 to 120 sec
Optimised (fine adjustment) of cockpit and cabin zone temperatures is achieved via the use of:
A hot air pressure regulating valve and 3 trim air valves
If the FWC detects a failure it will trigger an ECAM alert, provided no flight phase inhibition is active. How many flight phases are there?
10
Speed brakes are provided by spoilers:
2, 3, 4
When does the window (windshield) heating come on automatically?
When at least one engine is running or in flight
What is the meaning of a GREEN light in a flight deck pushbutton?
Normal system operation
How many fire extinguisher bottles are there for the engines and APU?
2 bottles for each engine and 1 bottle for the APU
Which of the following statements best describes bank angle protection?
Above 33° an input on the sidestick will be required to hold the bank attitude. Full deflection will give a roll rate of 15°/s and the bank angle will not exceed 67°
Is this alert HYD G ENG 1 PUMP LO PR a primary, secondary or independent failure? (PTU is operative, and hydraulic pressures are normal)
Independent
What happens if the EXPED button is pushed when the FCU selected altitude is below the current altitude?
THR IDLE (if A/THR active) and EXP DES engage. The speed becomes managed with a target of 340kt/M0.8, altitude constraints are disregarded
How can the secondary flight plan be activated in flight? ****
When HDG or TRK lateral guidance modes are engaged, select the ACTIVATE SECONDARY prompt on the SEC INDEX page of the MCDU. This prompt will not be available in NAV unless the active leg in the primary and secondary are the same
How can the flight crew arm the LOC and GS modes in order to fly an ILS approach? ****
Push the APP pushbutton on the FCU. The ILS information (including LOC and G/S scales) will not be displayed on the PFD unless the LS push button is selected on the EFIS panels
On which display(s) can the ground speed and TAS be viewed?
In the top left corner of the ND in all modes
What are the basic modes of the AP / FD?
HDG and V/S
When will the FADEC select the modulated idle mode?
In flight when the flap lever is not at the zero position
Which system/computer provides the predictive windshear function?
The weather radar
Roll control is provided by:
Ailerons and spoilers 2, 3, 4 and 5
Both ECAM screens have failed. Can the E/WD be displayed on any of the remaining display units?
Yes, use the ECAM/ND XFR switch on the SWITCHING panel to display the E/WD page on an ND
Both engines and the APU are running, what must the flight crew do before selecting APU bleed? (X-BLEED set to AUTO) ****
Nothing, upon selecting APU bleed the crossbleed valve will automatically open, and each engine bleed valve will automatically close
If a C/B trips what action should the flight crew take?
Consult the C/B Tripped procedure in the QRH for guidance. On the ground the first step is to contact maintenance to identify the cause. In flight the C/B should not be reengaged unless the captain deems it necessary for the safe continuation of the flight (only one reengagement is permitted)
How is the engine and IDG oil cooled?
Via FUEL/OIL heater exchangers. Excess fuel that has been used for this purpose and not used by the engine, is returned to the outer fuel tanks
With flight mode active in normal law, what does a pitch input on the side stick demand from the flight control computers (select the most complete answer)?
Load factor, with automatic trim. With the sidestick at neutral, wings level, the system maintains 1g in pitch (corrected for pitch attitude)
What is the significance of a NW STRG DISC memo?
The memo appears when the nose wheel steering selector is in the towing position. It will be GREEN when the engines are not running, and AMBER when at least one engine is running
Which flight control computers receive inputs from the sidestick?
ELAC and SEC
What will happen to the flight guidance modes when the altitude knob is pulled on the FCU?
OPEN CLIMB or OPEN DESCENT engages depending on selected FCU altitude
What is the maximum altitude that APU bleed can be used to assist an engine start?
20,000 ft
What impact does a single lane failure of ACSC 2 have on the air conditioning system?
There is no impact; loss of redundancy only
What protections are available in alternate law?
Load factor limitation is the only protection available in alternate law. High speed and low speed stabilities may be available
The MIXER unit is connected to:
Packs, re-circulated cabin air, emergency ram air inlet, and LP ground connector
On the RMP, the ON/OFF switch controls:
The power supply to the RMP
During a routine flight, which of the following would result after the loss of GEN 2 and the subsequent start of the APU?
GEN 1 continues to power AC bus 1. The APU powers AC bus 2
Following a double FMGC failure how can the navigation radios be tuned?
Select the NAV key (under the transparent switch guard) on RMP 1 and 2. Each RMP tunes its respective onside VOR and ADF radios. The both ILS receivers can be tuned from either RMP1 or 2
During a routine flight, which of the following would result after the loss of GEN 2 and the subsequent start of the APU?
GEN 1 continues to power AC bus 1. The APU powers AC bus 2
Select the correct starter limitation for the CFM engine:
A 15 minute cooling period is required following 4 failed start cycles
Which ECAM alert level signifies a dangerous configuration, flight condition or a system failure that alters flight safety?
Level 3
When the low level sensors detect that the centre tank is empty, the pumps will run for an additional_____min, and then stop
5
How many independent channels are there in a Flight Augmentation Computer?
4 channels: Yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limit, and flight envelope
During final approach, when is LAND annunciated on the FMA?
It engages <400 ft RA until approximately 40RA when it is replaced by FLARE. It can be disengaged by setting TOGA thrust, or by disconnecting both AP and FD
Select the correct statement about the AGENT pushbuttons on the FIRE panel
When the associated FIRE PB (ENG or APU) is released SQUIB illuminates in white on the corresponding agent pushbutton(s)
How many channels does a SFCC have?
2 channels: 1 SLAT and 1 FLAP
Which busses can be powered from the emergency generator?
AC ESS and DC ESS via ESS TR only
What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?
65 kts
What is the maximum indicated airspeed for opening a cockpit window in flight?
200 kts
What is VMO/MMO for the A320?
350 kts / 0.82 M
Which of the following statements regarding LP ground air limitations is true?
LP air and APU bleed must not be used at the same time
What are the flight maneuvering load acceleration limits for the A320?
Clean -1g to 2.5g. Other configurations 0g to 2g
In which areas of the engine are the fire detection loops located?
In the pylon nacelle, in the engine core, and in the engine fan section
Optimised (fine adjustment) of cockpit and cabin zone temperatures is achieved via the use of:
A hot air pressure regulating valve and 3 trim air valves
Roll control is provided by:
Ailerons and spoilers 2, 3, 4 and 5
With the ATT HDG switch set to CAPT 3, and AIR DATA switch set to NORM: which computer(s) will be providing air, attitude and heading data to the Captain's PFD?
ADIRU 1 will be providing air data, and ADIRU 3 attitude and heading data
Regarding ECAM, which of the following statements is true?
A Master Caution is always accompanied by an amber message on the E/WD
During a successful manual engine start when does the start valve close, and ignition cut off?
The FADEC automatically closes the start valve and cuts off ignition when N2 reaches 50%
What is the take-off and go around EGT limit for the CFM engine?
950°C
The aircraft is on the ground with external power plugged into the aircraft, and the APU running. How can the APU generator be connected to the electrical system?
By pushing the EXT PWR pb when the blue ON light is illuminated
On the ECAM E/WD, when does the LDG INHIBIT (magenta) memo appear?
Below 800 ft radio altitude
If the Engine Interface Unit (EIU) fails, what information does the FADEC loose access to?
Master switch, and engine mode selector position
What do amber boxes on a MCDU page indicate?
A mandatory data entry
After a cockpit oxygen mask has been used, how can the mask microphone be cut-off and boom microphone be re-activated?
Close the left hand door of the mask stowage box, and push the RESET/TEST slide. The OXY ON flag will disappear
What is the starter limitation for the APU?
A 60 min cooling period is required following three consecutive start attempts
Only _____ is functional in the emergency electrical configuration:
RMP 1
Which hydraulic system is used for landing gear retraction and extension?
Green
When does the FMGS automatically switch from takeoff to climb phase?
When the aircraft climb above acceleration altitude
When will the blue hydraulic system be pressurised on the ground?
When AC power is available and at least one engine is running
What impact does a single hydraulic failure have on the slats and flaps?
The corresponding surfaces operate at half speed
Which of the following statements best describes high speed protection?
High speed protection is activated at or above VMO/MMO (depending on the flight conditions), a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery back towards normal flight conditions. With no sidestick input the aircraft will roll to wings level, and the maximum bank angle is reduced to 40°
What is the standard method for disconnecting the A/THR?
The flight crew press the A/THR instinctive disconnect pushbutton, or set both thrust levers to the IDLE detent
If a system page push button fails on the ECAM control panel, can the corresponding system page still be viewed?
Yes, the ALL button allows the flight crew to select the desired SD page. This provides redundancy in the case of an ECAM control panel failure
Select the correct statement about the ADIRS panel.
The ADR or IR part of an ADIRU can be individually switched OFF using the IR or ADR pushbuttons. Setting the IR Mode Selector to OFF will remove power from the whole ADIRU
What would cause TCAS: REDUCE RANGE to appear on the ND?
It displays when a TA or RA is detected, and the ND range is above 40NM
Select the most complete statement about the APPR pushbutton on the FCU.
The APPR pushbutton will arm either the LOC and G/S modes or APP NAV and FINAL modes depending on the approach selected in the active F-PLN. Once engaged these approach modes will only disengage in the event of a go around, or disconnection of AP and FD
In which MCDU page does the flight crew enter the ZFW and ZFWCG values during cockpit preparation?
On the INIT B page
What is the normal mode of operation of the FMGS?
Dual mode
Which valves can the flight crew control via the ENG1 (ENG2) MASTER switches?
LP and HP fuel shutoff valves
What order is used by the flight control computers when both sidesticks are moved at the same time?
The orders of both sidesticks are algebraically added
In normal law, when does flight mode change to the flare mode?
40ft RA
What happens to the avionics ventilation system if only the EXTRACT push button is set to override?
The system enters closed circuit configuration, and air is added from the air conditioning system. This is a useful configuration to consider during heavy rain on the ground
What do the UNLK lights on the landing gear indicator panel mean?
They illuminate in red if the gear is not locked in the selected position
Select the correct statement about the AGENT pushbuttons on the FIRE panel
The DISCH light illuminates in amber when the corresponding fire extinguisher bottle has lost pressure
What is the significance of the triple click aural warning?
It indicates a landing capability downgrade, or some cases of mode reversion
What is the significance of a flashing red light on a cabin door?
It indicates residual cabin pressure. The light flashes red when one or both engines have stopped, the slide has been disarmed and the cabin differential pressure is above 2.5hPa
What happens when the landing gear is selected down on approach?
The WHEEL page appears on the LOWER ECAM DU
When does the PTU operate?
When there is more than a 500 PSI pressure difference between the green and yellow systems. The PTU is inhibited during the first engine start, and when the cargo doors are operated
What impact does a HYD G+Y SYS LO PR alert have on the braking system?
The system will automatically select alternate brakes without anti-skid, using the brake accumulator only. The accumulator can supply at least 7 full brake application
How is an altitude constraint, that the FMGS predicts will not be met, indicated?
An amber star on the MCDU F-PLN page, and an amber circle around the affected waypoint on the ND
What is the maximum speed with the landing gear extended (VLE)?
280 kts
When disconnecting the IDG, the IDG pushbutton should be pressed:
For no more than 3 sec, and only when the engine is running or windmilling
Can you reconnect an IDG in flight?
No, it is not possible
Which computer controls all datalink communications between the aircraft and the ground (Airline and or ATC)?
ATSU
Cost index = 0 (zero) corresponds to:
Minimum fuel consumption (max range)
When opened in an emergency, the passenger entry doors:
Will be driven open automatically by a damper actuator when the door control handle is lifted, and the door is armed
What areas of the aircraft are anti-iced with hot air?
Engine air intakes, and the three outboard leading edge slats of each wing
How many flight control computers are there?
7:2 x ELACS, 3 x SECs, 2 x FACS
Below what altitude does the vacuum generator produce the necessary pressure differential to force waste from the toilet bowls into the waste storage tank?
16,000 ft
Is it possible to parallel AC generators on the same BUS?
The electrical system will not allow paralleling of generators
Which of the following statements regarding the FWC, ELAC and FAC is true (select the most complete answer)?
The FWC generates the OVERSPEED warnings, the ELAC performs the HIGH SPEED protection, and the FAC computes and displays characteristic speeds on the PFD
How can the flight crew dry crank an engine?
Set the MODE selector to CRANK, and the MAN START push button to ON.
For routine access into the cockpit by the cabin crew, the buzzer sounds:
For a few sec
How is an armed slide indicated on the DOOR/OXY page?
The word SLIDE appears in WHITE next to the associated door
When all 6 fuel pumps are selected ON (MODE SEL auto), which fuel tank(s) will preferentially feed each engine? (assume that all tanks contain useable fuel
Shortly after departure both engines will receive fuel preferentially from the centre tank provided the slats are retracted, and approximately 500kg of fuel has been used in each inner tank
What can the flight crew do if the Captain loses audio in their headset (audio channel failure)?
The AUDIO SWITCHING selector should be set to CAPT/3, this connects the Captain's headset to ACP on the overhead panel
Frequency selection on each RMP is done by concentric knobs:
The outer knob controls whole numbers, the inner knob controls decimal fractions
What does a pulsing green ECAM indication mean?
An ADVISORY, the parameter is drifting / about to reach a limit
What happens if the DITCHING push button is selected ON? (select the most complete answer)
A close signal will be sent to the outflow valve, avionics ventilation inlet and outlet, emergency ram air valve, and pack flow control valves
What should you do if, after landing at destination, you notice the NAV database is out of date?
The aircraft can continue to operate, provided the operational procedures in the MEL are followed
With FLAPS and SLATS retracted, and ATHR ON, a speed of 100 kts is selected, what speed will the aircraft fly at?
Minimum Selectable Speed (VLS)
The Air Conditioning System Controller 1 (ACSC 1):
Regulates the cockpit temperature
Regarding speed symbols on the PFD, which statement is true?
Managed speed is represented by a magenta speed bug
You have initiated a managed descent, prior to the calculated top of descent. If you want to increase to your rate of descent, what should you do?
Pull the altitude knob on the FCU and extend half speed brakes
What does it mean if, after having shut down all engines, you observe a pulsing white STS message on the lower part of the E/WD?
It is a reminder that the status page is holding a maintenance message
Following a DESCEND TCAS Warning, what would your actions be?
AP off, FD 1+2 OFF, adjust or maintain the v/s to reach the green area on the vertical speed scale
When should ABNORMAL/EMERGENCY procedures be initiated on the PF's command?
Provided no exceptional circumstances exist, when the aircraft is at least 400 ft above the runway, and the appropriate flight path is established
Color coding on the ECAM screens: Which color indicates a normal condition?
Green
Which abnormal and emergency procedures have SUMMARIES in the QRH?
DUAL HYD FAILURES and ELEC EMER CONFIG
What should the pilots do to leave the cockpit in an emergency?
If it is not possible to reach the passenger cabin, evacuate via a sliding window, using an escape rope
What are the initial IMMEDIATE ACTIONS for EMER DESCENT?
CREW OXY MASKS - USE; SIGNS - ON; EMER DESCENT - INITIATE; if A/THR not active: THR LVR - IDLE; SPD BRK - FULL
If you encounter a stall warning at liftoff, what should your actions be?
Set TOGA thrust, pitch to 15° and roll wings level
What must the Go-around climb gradient be at least equal to?
3.5% or 1.23 Vs
As a general rule, are ECAM procedures (as displayed on the E/WD) also provided for reference in the QRH?
ECAM procedures are not duplicated in the QRH. The QRH contains some specific procedures which are not displayed on the ECAM
In CONF CLEAN, what is the standard EO holding speed?
The Green dot
What are included in the fuel planning requirements for dispatch?
Taxi + Trip Fuel + Contingency + Alternate + Final reserve
The RLD is the regulatory reference to be used for:
Dispatch landing performance computation
Which system/computer provides the reactive windshear detection function?
FAC
What speed will the FMGS use in an expedite climb?
The target speed is Green Dot, which is maintained with pitch control
When will the autobrake system activate following a rejected takeoff?
The command for ground spoiler deployment from the SECs (wheel speed > 72 kt) will activate the autobrake
During cruise flight, how are the cockpit panels and avionics compartment cooled?
The avionics ventilation system extracts air from the cockpit panels and avionics compartment, and then removes heat using a skin air heat exchanger
Where does the air data displayed on the ISIS come from?
ADIRU 1, ADIRU 3, or from its own internal transducers connected to the standby pitot probe and static ports
When the PACK FLOW selector is positioned to HI, airflow is:
120% of Normal
During final approach, when is LAND annunciated on the FMA?
It engages at 400 ft RA and can be exited by selecting TOGA befor
FLARE is annunciated
What are the three possible FMGC modes of operation?
Independent, single, and dual
Color coding on the ECAM screens: Which color indicates that immediate action is required?
Red
Color coding on the ECAM screens: Which color indicates that crew awareness is required?
Amber
Where are the gravity refuelling points located?
On the upper surface of each wing
Where is the refuelling / defueling panel located?
On the fuselage side beneath the right wing
During manual refuelling, which fuel tanks should be filled first?
Wing tanks
What are the certified takeoff flap positions?
1+F, 2, or 3